Paper 1

The following Table – 1 and Table – 2

Show the breakup of 4170 vacant posts in six Banks A-F, and the percentage (%) breakup of the requirement of personnel in six different cadres in a Bank, namely, IT officers (ITO), Agricultural Field Officers (AFO), Law Officers (LO), Finance Executives (FE), Technical Officers (TO) and Probationary Officers (PO), respectively. Assume that these percentages are the same for all the six Banks. Based on the data in the tables, answer the questions.

Tables 1: Bank-wise Vacant Posts

Tables 2:

Q.1) Banks A and C recruited ITOS as per given requirement. After few days, some of the newly employed ITOS left Bank A and joined Bank C1. The number of new recruits of ITOS in Bank A and Bank C have now become equal. The percentage of new recruits who left Bank A is

1) 12.5%

2) 22.5%

3) 39%

4) 78%

Answer: 1) 12.5%

Q.2) By what percent is the number of recruitments of LOS more/ less in C, E and F taken together than in A, B and D taken together?

1) More By 37.11%

2) Less By 33.22%

3) More By 33.22%

4) Less By 37.11%

Answer: 4) Less By 37.11%

Q.3) The ratio of recruitment of AFOS in C and E taken together with that of D and F taken together is

1) 46:35

2) 233:174

3) 174:233

4) 35:46

Answer: 4) 35:46

Q.4) Banks D and F hired 15% more POS than their requirement. After one year, the total strength of the staff in both D and F was brought down to the original strength through retrenchment of some employees. By what percent is the retrenchment less/more in Bank D than in Bank F?

1) 46.43% more in Bank D

2) 46.43% less in Bank D

3) 43.46% less in Bank D

4) 43.46% more in Bank D

Answer: 1) 46.43% more in Bank D

Q.5) In Bank E, how many more TOS should be employed than the required number so that the ratio of number of TOs to that of number of FEs becomes 2:3?

1) 42

2) 34

3) 23

4) 39

Answer: 1) 42

Q.6) Which of the following statements best describes Brainstorming method of teaching?

1) Production of large number of ideas

2) Small step presentation with feedback provided

3) Content delivery in a lucid language

4) Theme based interaction among participants

Answer: 1) Production of large number of ideas

Q.7) Which of the following are the main characteristics of learner centered approach?

A) It is based on rigid curriculum.

B) It is centered on cooperative determination of subject matter.

C) It is mainly centered on teacher needs.

D) It lays emphasis on variability of exposure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B and D only

2) A and Conly

3) B and D only

4) B and C only

Answer: 3) B and D only

Q.8) The channels of SWYAM PRABHA are uplinked from BISAG,

1) Aurangabad

2) Hyderabad

3) Gandhinagar

4) Bangalore

Answer: 3) Gandhinagar

Q.9) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: TPACK (Technological Pedagogical Content Knowledge) framework has been developed by Mishra and Kochler in 2006.

Statement II: TPACK framework comprises of total six components.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.10) Which of the following statements best describes “Summative Evaluation’ in evaluation procedures?

1) The teacher clarifies the doubts of the students in the class itself

2) A teacher awards grades to the students after having transacted the course work.

3) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides feedback.

4) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session during feedback.

Answer: 2) A teacher awards grades to the students after having transacted the course work.

Q.12) When the consistency of data collected is measured at different points of time, it is identified as.

1) Inter- rater reliability

2) Test- retest reliability

3) Split half reliability

4) Internal reliability

Answer: 2) Test- retest reliability

Q.13) Change of behaviour in people after they come to know they are participating in a research project to produce results that do not have validity is known as

1) Blind effect

2) Evaluation effect

3) Hawthorne effect

4) Demand effect

Answer: 3) Hawthorne effect

Q.14) Some of the threats to internal validity in research are:

A) Quasi experimental design

B) Pre-Testing

C) Attrition

D) History

E) Maturation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below semi colon:

1) A, B and C Only

2) B, C and D only

3) B, D and E only

4) C, D and E only

Answer: 4) C, D and E only

Q.15) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Focus group discussions, the moderator is supposed to provide a liberal climate for participants to open up.

Statement II: Participants of focus group discussions should rant individual experiences for comparison.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q.16) In communication, denotation is the level of

1) Belief

2) Contrast

3) Description

4) Dissent

Answer: 3) Description

Q.17) Symbols provide meaning when used in a

1) Contrasting style

2) Random order

3) Non-specific context

4) Specific cultural context

Answer: 4) Specific cultural context

Q.18) A hot medium is characterised by

A) Non mechanical components

B) Low Audience participation

C) It envelopes only one sense

D) Large amounts of information supplies

E) High audience participation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B and C only

2) B, C and D only

3) C, D and E only

4) A, D and E only

Answer: 2) B, C and D only

Q.19) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the initial stages, mass communication was considered as a study of propaganda

Statement II: Now it has its linguistic component in terms of signs, codes and language

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.20) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mass communication supplies an inventory of public messages and allows for the monitoring of social values.

Statement II: In large scale social settings, mass media will enable integration of social institutions.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.21) An amount of ₹8500 becomes ₹ 9500 in 3 years time at some simple rate of interest. How much the amount of ₹10,200 will become in 5 years at the same rate of simple interest?

1)11800

2) 12000

3) 12200

4)12500

Answer: 3) 12200

Q.22) A man looks at the photograph of a person X and says “She is the daughter of the husband of only daughter of father of my brother-in-law (Wife’s brother)”. How is the person X related to the man?

1) Daughter

2) Sister

3) Wife

4) Mother

Answer: 1) Daughter

Q.23) A person starts from point A and walks 30 meters in the North direction and then 20 meters towards West and reaches a point B) Thereafter, he takes a southward turn and walks 10 meters to point C) After that, he turns eastward and covers 15 meters to reach point D) Finally, turning to his right he walks 20 meters, Find the distance from his starting point to the end point.

1) 4 meters

2) 5 meters

3) 8 meters

4) 10 meters

Answer: 2) 5 meters

Q.24) What number should replace question Mark(?1) in the series given below.

55, 47, 74, 10, 135, -81, 262?

1)774

2) -250

3) 343

4) -343

Answer: 2) -250

Q.25) In a certain code language, the word TECHNOLOGY is written as ‘ETHCONOLYG’. How will the word GENERATION be written in that language?

1) EGENARITNO

2) EGNERATINO

3) EGENARTINO

4) EGENARITON

Answer: 1) EGENARITNO

Q.26) “Critics of Freudian theory should get themselves psychoanalyzed because opposition to the theory is itself caused by unconscious resistance arising from the Dedipal complex. Which according to Freud distorts one’s thinking.” Which logical fallacy is committed in the above argument?

1) Appeal to authority

2) Slippery slope

3) Begging the Question

4) Hasty generalization

Answer: 3) Begging the Question

Q.27) Which one of the following propositions is logically equivalent to the proposition-“Some attorneys are logicians”?

1) Some logicians are not attorneys.

2) Some attorneys are non- logicians.

3) Some logicians are attorneys.

4) Some non-logicians are not non-attorneys.

Answer: 3) Some logicians are attorneys.

Q.28) If the proposition ‘No frogs are amphibians’ is given as false then which of the following propositions can be immediately inferred to be true?

1) Some non- amphibians are not non frogs.

2) Some frogs are amphibians.

3) All frogs are amphibians.

4) Some frogs are not amphibians.

Answer: 2) Some frogs are amphibians.

Q.29) Which of the following propositions are so related that if one of them is true, the other has to be false and vice-versa?

A) All camels are herbivorous.

B) Some camels are herbivorous.

C) Some camels are not herbivorous.

D) No Camels are herbivorous.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A and D only

2) B and D only

3) B and C only

4) A and B only

Answer: 2) B and D only

Q.30) Which of the following arguments is an example of Svarupāsiddha fallacy?

1) The sky- lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake

2) Sound is eternal because it is produced

3) Sound is a quality because it is visible

4) Fire is cold because it is a substance

Answer: 1) The sky- lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake

Q.31) Which of the following best describes Web 3.0?

1) User generated online business

2) Based on the “intelligent” web where applications use natural language processing

3) Collaboration and social media

4) Refers to static text-based information websites.

Answer: 2) Based on the “intelligent” web where applications use natural language processing

Q.32) In the context of Information and Communication Technologies (ICT), which of the following statements is/are true?

A) In an email system, Bcc: allows the sender of a message to conceal the recipient entered in the Bcc: field from the other recipients.

B) Phishing is a malicious program installed on a system that stays concealed avoiding detection.

C) Spamming is an attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by masquerading as a trustworthy entity.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B and C only

2) B only

3) A only

4) A and C only

Answer: 3) A only

Q.33) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mainframe computers have smaller internal memories than desktop computers.

Statement II: Spreadsheets and word processors are examples of application software

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 4) Statement | is false but Statement II is true

Q.34) ICT is used to control and monitor everyday activities. Which of the following activities are most likely to use sensors?

A) Designing a master slide for presentation

B) Activating a burglar alarm

C) Opening automatic doors

D) Creating a spreadsheet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A and B only

2) B and C only

3) C and D only

4) A and D only

Answer: 2) B and C only

Q.35) Which of the following statements about computer networks are TRUE?

A) An intranet is a public network.

B) The Internet is a group of interconnected networks.

C) An extranet is an internal network that can be accessed externally by authorized users.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A and B only

2) A and C only

3) B and C only

4) A, B and C

Answer: 3) B and C only

Q.36) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rivers and lakes that have low biological productivity are said to be eutrophic

Statement II: Rivers and lakes that are rich in organisms and organic materials are called as oligotrophic

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q.37) What is flex fuel engine in motor vehicles?

1) Engines which run exclusively on biofuels.

2) Engines which are compatible with only 50% biofuel and 50% gasoline

3) Engines in which biofuels and gasoline can be put in any ratio.

4) Engines which run on both diesel and CNG.

Answer: 3) Engines in which biofuels and gasoline can be put in any ratio.

Q.38) Which of the following are pathways for toxicants to enter into our body?

A) Inhalation

B) Absorption

C) Dermal

D) Ingestion

E) Extraction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, C and D only

2) A and E only

3) B, C and D only

4) C, D and E only

Answer: 1) A, C and D only

Q.39) In order to limit the rise in global temperature to 1)5 °C over pre industrial levels, IPCC indicates that the world has to reduce the emission of greenhouse gas to the extent of % by the year 2030.

1) 65

2) 50

3) 45

4) 40

Answer: 3) 45

Q.40) Although ozone is a pollutant in the ambient air, but in stratosphere it is valuable because it absorbs harmful

1) IR-Radiations

2) X-Rays

3) UV-Radiations

4) Gama- Rays

Answer: 3) UV-Radiations

Q.41) Which of the following specific programmes are initiated by UGC for the promotion of values and ethical practices?

A) Jeevan Kaushal

B) Deeksharambh

C) Vishwa Bharat

D) Guru Dakshata

E) Vishwa Darshan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) C, D and E only

2) A and E only

3) B, C and D only

4) A, B and D only

Answer: 4) A, B and D only

Q.42) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Technical education is that which emphasises on the learning of techniques as technical procedures and necessary skills and aims at preparing technicians usually above the secondary level.

Statement II: There is no distinction between vocational education, industrial education and technical education.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q.43) Which of the following are the state universities of India?

A) Sardar Patel University, Gujarat

B) Nagaland University, Nagaland

C) Acharya Nagarjuna University, Andhra Pradesh

D) Gauhati University, Assam

E) Sikkim University, Sikkim

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B, D and E only

2) A, B, C and E only

3) A, C and D only

4) C, D and E only

Answer: 3) A, C and D only

Q.44) Which of the following are included among the Institutes of Agricultural Research?

A) Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

B) Indian Institute of Food Technology.

C) Central Agricultural Marketing Department.

D) Indian Dairy Research Institute

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, C and D

2) A, B and D only

3) A and B only

4) A and Conly

Answer: 1) A, B, C and D

Q.45) Given below are two statements:

Statement 1: In ancient India, education was free

Statement II: In ancient India, education was centralized

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The process of the imperialist conquest of Asia and Africa was accompanied by intense rivalries, and conflicts among the European imperialist powers. The competing claims over colonies often created conditions of war. However, generally, most of these conflicts were resolved in the conference rooms of Europe and wars were avoided The European powers settled their rival claims which country would acquire which territory on the basis of quid pro quo or ‘something for something’, by giving away something in exchange for receiving something. For example, in 1904, after a long period of conflicting claims, which had brought them almost to the point of war, Britain and France entered into a secret agreement whereby Britain was given a free hand in Egypt and in exchange Morocco was to be given to France When Germany came to know about it, she demanded that France relinquish her claim to Morocco. A series of international crises followed, bringing Europe to the brink of war. The Moroccan issue was finally settled in 1911 when France agreed to give a portion of French Congo to Germany and Germany informed France that she could do what she liked in Morocco. In creating these crises and in resolving them, the people of French Congo or Morocco, whose territories were being bargained, had no say.

Q.46) Which of the countries was allowed to take control of Egypt?

1) Britain

2) France

3) Germany

4) Spain

Answer: 1) Britain

Q.47) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Competing claims over African colonies were generally settled through war among the European powers.

Statement II: France was in conflict only with Britain over Morocco.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q.48) Which of the following countries was allowed to have colony in Morocco?

1) Britain

2) France

3) Germany

4) Spain

Answer: 2) France

Q.49) Which among the following European powers were involved in tussle over Morocco?

A) Britain

B) France

C) Germany

D) Spain

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) A and B only

2) A, B and C only

3) B, C and D only

4) A, C and D only

Answer: 2) A, B and C only

Q.50) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: France allowed Germany to exercise full control over the French Congo.

Statement II: France went to war with Britain in 1904.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.