October 2022 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 12th Oct 2022 : Morning Shift)

Q.1-5)

Q.1) What is the total number of male teachers in City-F, female teachers in City-C and female teachers in City-B together?

[1] 1080

[2] 1120

[3] 1180

[4] 1020

Correct Answer: 1

Q.2) The number of female teachers in City-D is approximately what percent of the total number of teachers in City-A?

[1] 75

[2] 81

[3] 95

[4] 91

Correct Answer: 4

Q.3) In which city is the number of male teachers more than the number of female teachers?

[1] B only

[2] D only

[3] Both B and E

[4] Both E and F

Correct Answer: 3

Q.4) What is the difference between the total number of teachers in City-E and the number of female teachers in City-F?

[1] 625

[2] 775

[3] 675

[4] 725

Correct Answer: 2

Q.5) What is the ratio of the number of male teachers in City-C to the number of female teachers in City-B?

[1] 11:15

[2] 15:11

[3] 15:8

[4] 8:15

Correct Answer: 3

Q.6) Which one of the following is the national repository of high-quality resources on foundational literacy and numeracy?

[1] Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA)

[2] National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

[3] National Repository on Open Educational Resources (NROER)

[4] National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST)

Correct Answer: 1

Q.7) Under which initiative every student in the country will participate in a fun project/activity on ‘The Languages of India’ sometime in Grades 6-8?

[1] Make in India

[2] Digital India

[3] Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat

[4] EK Bharat Shrestha Bharat

Correct Answer: 4

Q.8) Statement I: It is not desirable to have all the interest areas around the outside of the classroom, leaving a large dead space in the middle.

Statement II : It is not desirable to put bookshelves next to the reading area and games equipments by the game table.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II s correct

Correct Answer: 3

Q.9) Match the column:

(A) Learning Management System

(B) Web Conferencing System

(D) Data Processing System

(I) Blender

(II) Sakai

(III) spss

(IV) Microsoft Teams

[1] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[2] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[3] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

[4] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 1

Q.10) Identify the approaches to assessment that require performance in context.

(A) Priming

(B) Portfolios

(D) Exhibitions

[1] B D

[2] A C

[3] C D

[4] D E

Correct Answer: 1

Q.11) The type of research in which the researcher gains familiarity with a phenomenon to achieve new insights into it, is known as :

[1] Diagnostic research study

[2] Exploratory research study

[3] Descriptive research study

[4] Hypothesis testing study

Correct Answer: 2

Q.12) The procedure of assigning numbers to various degrees of opinion, attitude and other concepts, is called as :

[1] Regression

[2] Sealing

[3] Variance

[4] Concordance

Correct Answer: 2

Q.13) Identify the correct sequence for the technique of developing measurement tools :

(A) Specification of concept dimensions

(B) Selection of indicators

(D) Formation of index

[1] A B C D

[2] C A B D

[3] B C A D

[4] D A C B

Correct Answer: 2

Q.14) With reference to Likert-type scale, the correct set of options include :

(A) Likert-type scale can be performed without a panel of judges

(B) Likert-type scales are not considered reliable

(D) Each statement in Likert-type scale is given an empirical test for discriminating ability

(E) Likert-type scale can be used in reopondent.centred studies

[1] A B C

[2] B C D

[3] A D E

[4] C D E

Correct Answer: 3

Q.15)

[1] A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

[2] A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

[3] A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

[4] A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Correct Answer: 4

Q.16) Organisational communication is ______in nature.

[1] Obtrusive

[2] Contradictory

[3] Non-behavioural

[4] Applied

Correct Answer: 4

Q.17) Development of communication skills among learners involves :

(A) Vertical flow of information

(B) Restricted expression of views

(D) Sharing of doubts

(E) Understanding human psychology

[1] A B C

[2] B C D

[3] C D E

[4] A D E

Correct Answer: 3

Q.18) Statement I: The physical context of communication must be tangible.

Statement II: The temporal context of message deals with the sequence of events.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false,

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.19) Types of communication distance on a continuum of ethnocentrism in sequence are :

(A) indifference

(B) Avoidance

(D) Equality

(E) Sensitivity

[1] B C E D A

[2] D E A B C

[3] C D E A B

[4] A B C E D

Correct Answer: 2

Q.20) Match the column:

(A) Public speaking

(B) Leadership

(D) Interviewing

(I) To gain information

(II) Confidence

(III) Problem-solving

(IV) Represents a credible person

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[3] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.21) What comes next in the following sequence?

0.25, 2.25, 6.25, 12.25,?

[1] 18.25

[2] 19.25

[3] 16.25

[4] 20.25

Correct Answer: 4

Q.22) Kavita’s age is eight years more than thrice the sum of the ages of her two grandsons who are twins. Nine years later, Kavita’s age will be one year more than two times the sum of the ages of her two grandsons. What was the age of Kavita when her grandsons were born”?

[1] 58 years

[2] 68 years

[3] 65 years

[4] 28 years

Correct Answer: 1

Q.23) The population of a bacteria culture doubles every 2 minutes. How many minutes will it take for the population to grow from 1 to 1024?

[1] 10

[2] 14

[3] 18

[4] 20

Correct Answer: 4

Q.24) Statement I: A fraction can be reduced to its lowest form by dividing the numerator and denominator with a common factor.

Statement II: Two fractions can be compared by comparing their numerators if their denominators are equal.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.25) Price of a mobile is first increased by 20% and later decreased by 25%. What is the net percentage change in final price of the mobile?

[1] 10%

[2] 18%

[3] 20%

[4] 12%

Correct Answer: 1

Q.26) Assertion A: There are certain psychological conditions under which inference takes place.

Reason R: Absence of positive knowledge and will to infer its presence or absence are pre-requisites for inference to be drawn.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.27) Match the column:

(A) Fallacy that occurs due to appeal to non-rational methods of intimidation

(B) Fallacy that occurs when an argument makes an appeal to the character of the person

(D) Fallacy that occurs when a general rule is applied to a case in which the rule is inapplicable

(I) Argumentum ad Hominem

(II) Accident Fallacy

(III) Argumentum ad Populum

(IV) Argumentum ad Baculum (force)

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-III B-II C-I D-IV

[3] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[4] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

Correct Answer: 4

Q.28) Which of the following is not a fallacy of Ambiguity?

[1] Equivocation

[2] Amphiboly

[3] Accent

[4] Accident

Correct Answer: 4

Q.29) Assertion A: A proper name has only denotation but no connotation.

Reason R: Intension refers to set of adjectives; Extension refers to set of substantive.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.30) ‘All college professors are entertaining lecturers’ is True in a square of opposition which of the following can be inferred correctly from the given codes.

(A) ‘No college professors are entertaining lecturers’ is false

(B) ‘Some college professors are not entertaining lecturers’ is true

(D) ‘Some college professors are entertaining lecturers’ is false

[1] A B

[2] B C

[3] C D

[4] A C

Correct Answer: 4

Q.31) Aman adds a video file to his social networking page. Which one of these describes a video that has been watched by a lot of people over a short period of time?

[1] Digital

[2] Tagged

[3] Viral

[4] Open source

Correct Answer: 3

Q.32) Identify the correct order of the following major technological changes in computers based on fourth to first generation of computers.

(A) Microprocessors

(B) Vaccum Tubes

(D) Transistors

[1] C A D B

[2] A C B D

[3] A C D B

[4] D B A C

Correct Answer: 3

Q.33) Statement I: You can create folders to store and organise your emails.

Statement II: You can add attachments of any file size to an email.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.34) Which of the following file format contains exclusively the sound file format appropriate for web distribution?

(A) wMv

(B) WAV

(D) MOV

(E) MP3

[1] B C

[2] B E

[3] A D

[4] A E

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Match the column:

(Technical Term)

(A) Phishing

(B) Pharming

(D) Smishing

(Description)

(I) The action of illegally installing malicious code which redirects a person to a fraudulent website with the purpose of obtaining that person’s bank details

(II) The action of sending text messages to fraudulently obtain another person’s bank details

(III) The action of sending emails to fraudulently obtain another person’s bank details

(IV) Unsolicited bulk emails

[1] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[2] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[3] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[4] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 3

Q.36) 1 mm layer of pure ozone gas around earth at normal temperature and pressure is equivalent to:

[1] 1 Dobson Unit (DU)

[2] 10 DU

[3] 100 DU

[4] 0.1 DU

Correct Answer: 3

Q.37) Match the column:

(A) Mist

(B) Smoke

(D) Smog

(I) Aerosols consisting of solid particles

(II) Aerosols produced by condensation of hot vapors of metals

(III) Photochemical products of VOCs and NOx

(IV) Aerosols consisting of liquid droplets

[1] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[2] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

[3] A-II B-IV C-III D-I

[4] A-IV B-II C-I D-III

Correct Answer: 1

Q.38) Assertion A: Bottom ash generated into the boilers of the thermal power plants are major cause of nearby river pollution.

Reason R: The hot water generated from thermal power plants are discharged into the nearby rivers.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.39) Statement I: Chronic toxicity caused due to hazardous wastes is not difficult to determine.

Statement II: Chronic effects may be seen immediately after the exposure.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: 2

Q.40) What is the correct sequence of preparing vermi-compost?

(A) Introduction of culture of worms in to the pit.

(B) Lining up with straw or dried grass and leaves

(D) Construction of pit of half square meter area and one meter deep

(E) Putting into pit the organic wastes as and when generated

[1] D E B A C

[2] A C D E B

[3] E A B C D

[4] D B E A C

Correct Answer: 4

Q.41) The reforms initiated under the Rashtriya Uchchattar Shiksha Abhiyaan (RUSA) aim at:

(A) Push for greater accountability and autonomy of state institutions

(B) Improving the quality of education and infrastructure

(D) Increase in GER upto 50 percent

(E) Efficient monitoring and continuous feedback mechanism

[1] A B C

[2] A B

[3] A B C D

[4] B C D E

Correct Answer: 2

Q.42) According to National Education Policy (2020). National Higher Education Regulatory Council will be the single-point regulator for all disciplines except-

[1] Teacher Education

[2] Medical and Legal education

[3] Agricultural sciences

[4] Management

Correct Answer: 2

Q.43) Match the column:

(A) National Education Policy

(B) National Policy on Education

(D) Learning without Burden Report of the National Advisory Committee

(I) 1903

(II) 2009

(III) 1986

(IV) 2020

[1] A-IV B-II C-III D-I

[2] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[3] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

Correct Answer: 3

Q.44) Assertion A: Universities play a key role in building a symbiotic relationship between the nation, state and society

Reason R: Universities are centres for creation and transmission of knowledge

[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is correct but R is not correct

[4] A is not correct but R is correct

Correct Answer: 2

Q.45-49)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

Public action, in a broad sense, can play a central role in economic development and in bringing social opportunities within the reach of people as a whole. Sometimes public action is characterised in the economic literature as action by the government, not as action by the public itself. This interpretation can be seriously misleading as it draws attention away from the influence that the public can have in determining the direction of governmental action. Actions of the public can be of profound significance to the successes and failures of economic and social change in general, and to development efforts in particular. The role of public activisim in influencing government policy can be particularly important in promoting the positive functions of the government. These positive functions include the provisions of public services such as health care, child immunisation, primary education, social securty, environmental protection and rural infrastructure. The vigilance and involvement of the public can be quite crucial not only in ensuring an adequate expansion of these essential services but also in monitoring their functioning. Indeed the actual reach and effective quality of the services that are meant to be, in principle available often depends a great deal on the information that the local community gathers and the extent to which it can get its voice heard. The shirking and absentecism of village teachers for example are much more easily observed by the villagers themselves than by the government inspectors and the search for redress can be more effectively achieved with local activism. Besides. schools, hospitals and other facilities can be made more sensitive to the public needs if there is a local pressure in that direction, better than the directions from the above.

Q.45) What can bring social opportunities within the reach of the people?

[1] The government directives

[2] Economic literature

[3] Actions of the public

[4] Success of Social Change

Correct Answer: 3

Q.46) Positive functions of the government can be supported by :

[1] Public influence on policy-decisions

[2] Focussing on education and social security

[3] Centralized power structure

[4] Top-down. one-way general instructions

Correct Answer: 1