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October 2022 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 11th Oct 2022 : Morning Shift)

Q.1-5)

Q.1) Which stream the number of admitted students is highest?

[1] Medical

[2] Science

[3] Arts

[4] Engineering

Correct Answer: 2

Q.2) What is the percentage of vacant seats?

[1] 17.66

[2] 15.66

[3] 14.22

[4] 16.67

Correct Answer: 4

Q.3) What is the ratio of students admitted to science stream and engineering stream?

[1] 9:4

[2] 7:4

[3] 11:5

[4] 9:5

Correct Answer: 1

Q.4) What is the percentage of students admitted to Medical stream among the total number of admissions of the college?

[1] 13

[2] 15

[3] 14

[4] 16

Correct Answer: 3

Q.5) What is the average number of Arts students admitted to each college?

[1] ~214

[2] ~212

[3] ~215

[4] ~217

Correct Answer: 2

Q.6) Match the column:

(A) Mind Maps

(B) Gamification

(D) ICT-based teaching method

(I) Allow students to explore the lesson before the teacher describes

(II) Virtual Reality

(III) Use of self-learning tools

(IV) Learning through using quizzes

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 3

Q.7) Match the following:

(A) Formative Evaluation

(B) Placement Evaluation

(D) Diagnostic Evaluation

(I) The purpose is to check the aptitude of a candidate for the course or subject. Entrance exam can be conducted for the same.

(II) It provides the student with feedback regarding his/her success or failure in attaining the instructional objectives.

(III) This evaluation provides an explanation for the possible causes for problems in learning.

(IV) It is a method of judging the worth of the programme at the end of program activities.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[3] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[4] A-IV B-II C-I D-III

Correct Answer: 3

Q.8) Which of the following is/are the feature/s of Reflective level of teaching?

(A) Students learn by understanding the facts and information.

(B) Teaching is nothing but learning the subject by rote.

(D) The student’s original thinking and creative abilities.

(E) The pupils are kept in strict disciplines and cramming is insisted.

[1] B C

[2] D E

[3] A B

[4] C D

Correct Answer: 4

Q.9) Put the following in the correct sequence in the light of process of the Evaluation system.

(A) Development and use of measurement instruments.

(B) Interpretation of Data.

(D) Formulation of judgments and taking of appropriate action.

[1] A B C D

[2] B C A D

[3] C A B D

[4] A C B D

Correct Answer: 3

Q.10) In which of the learner-centered methods students are first presented with challenges?

[1] Self-learning

[2] Active learning

[3] Inductive teaching and learning

[4] Cooperative learning

Correct Answer: 3

Q.11) What is the full form of ‘MLA’ as referencing style?

[1] Machine Language Adaptation

[2] Modern Language Association

[3] Management Language Authority

[4] Mainstream Language Association

Correct Answer: 2

Q.12) Assertion (A): Qualitative research is guided by positivistic epistemology

Reason (R): The aim of quantitative research is only to test hypotheses.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.13) Statement I: In the present time, researchers prefer to write research papers over writing a monograph.

Statement II: Monographs and books are not included in the database of research.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.14) Statement I: Field notes are important for prompting the ethnographer’s memory and form much of the data for subsequent analysis.

Statement II: Research methods such as qualitative interviewing are flexible, and are less disruptive of the work and personal lives of both researchers and research participants.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.15) Which among the following are examples of personal documents, for the purpose of sources of data?

(A) Diaries

(B) Mass media outputs

(D) Autobiographies

(E) Company documents

[1] A B C

[2] A C E

[3] A C D

[4] B C D

Correct Answer: 3

Q.16) In terms of communication, most online platforms of teaching and learning are :

[1] Synchronous

[2] Asynchronous

[3] One-to-none

[4] Tied to specific timeframe

Correct Answer: 2

Q.17) Which of the following are barriers to acceptance of the communicated message:

(A) Body language with positive vibes

(B) Attitude of the listener

(D) Status clash

(E) Knowledge stimuli

[1] A B C

[2] B C D

[3] C D E

[4] A D E

Correct Answer: 2

Q.18) Statement I: Western concepts focus on wholeness and unity of communication.

Statement II: Non-Western communication concepts have the strong central idea of individualism.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.19) Match the column:

(Elements of Human Communication)

(A) People

(B) Ideas

(D) Language

(Representational Description)

(I) Semanticism

(II) Lead to modification of Physical environment

(III) Information processors

(IV) Expression of creativity

[1] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[2] A-I B-II C-IV D-III

[3] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[4] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.20) If 7461 is coded as 135, then what will be the code for 6893?

[1] 151

[2] 161

[3] 179

[4] 152

Correct Answer: 2

Q.21) A clock is set right at 5 A.M. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 10 P.M. on the 4th day?

[1] 11 A.M.

[2] 11 P.M.

[3] 9 P.M.

[4] 10 P.M.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.22) Statement I: If you know the length of any one side of a right-angled triangle. the area of the triangle can be found.

Statement II: If you know the length of two sides of a right-angled triangle, the length of the third side can be found.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.23) Which of the following has the highest value?

[1] 15^2

[2] 6^4

[3] 2^7

[4] 3^5

Correct Answer: 2

Q.24) What will be the diameter of a circle having an area equal to that of a square of side 2.0 m?

[1] ~1.256 m

[2] ~2.257 m

[3] ~0.88 m

[4] ~2.718 m

Correct Answer: 2

Q.25) The secretaries have asked us to provide lounge areas where they can spend their coffee breaks. This request will have to be refused. If we give them lounge areas, next they will ask for spas and swimming pools. Then it will be yoga centers and fitness gyms. Expenditures for these facilities will drive us into bankruptcy”. Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

[1] Strawmen

[2] Hasty generalization

[3] Red herring

[4] Slippery slope

Correct Answer: 4

Q.26) Statement I: The intensional meaning consists of the qualities or attributes that the term denotes.

Statement II: The extensional meaning consists of the members of the class that the term denotes.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.27) Which of the following is true regarding Nyaya view of invariable concomitance?

(A) It is determined by inductive process of reasoning which corresponds to Mill’s method of agreement and method of difference.

(B) It is based on concomitance of affirmatives that wherever a product exists the material cause thereof exists.

(C) Itis based on the concomitance of negatives that wherever a material cause does not exist the product thereof does not exist.

(D) Nyaya view of inductive process does not correspond to Mill’s method of agreement and method of difference.

[1] A, C, D

[2] B, C, D

[3] A, C

[4] A, B, C

Correct Answer: 4

Q.28) If Sneha tampered with the examination script, then she is guilty of a crime. Sneha did not tamper with the examination script. Therefore Sneha is not guilty of a crime. Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

[1] Fallacy of affirming the antecedent

[2] Fallacy of composition

[3] Fallacy of denying the antecedent

[4] Fallacy of affirming the consequent

Correct Answer: 3

Q.29) Statement I: According to Nyaya philosophy an argument does not proceed on the issues that are well established.

Statement II: According to Nyaya philosophy an argument can proceed only on those issues that are completely and absolutely unknown.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.30) What is the full form of the acronym CAD and CAM?

[1] Control Aided Data and Computer Aided Man

[2] Computer Aided Design and Computer Aided Manufacturing

[3] Computer Aided Design and Computer Aided Maintenance

[4] Computer Aided Design and Computer Aided Man

Correct Answer: 2

Q.31) Which two of the following tasks are carried out by all operating systems?

(A) Repairing mouse

(B) Data logging

(D) Transferring data to printer

(E) Drawing image

[1] A, D

[2] B, C

[3] C, D

[4] C, E

Correct Answer: 3

Q.32) The functional components of a digital computer are :

(A) Input Device

(B) Printer

(D) Memory

(E) Output Device

[1] A, B, C, D

[2] A, D, E

[3] A, C, D, E

[4] C, D, E

Correct Answer: 2

Q.33) Statement I: Piracy refers to attempts to gain information from otherwise undisclosed areas.

Statement II: Hacking refers to the unauthorized duplication of computer software.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.34) Statement I: SWAYAM is Study Web of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Mind.

Statement II: SWAYAM is Source With Active Young Aspirational mindfulness.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.35) Assertion (A): Geothermal fluids are rich in salts and other contaminants such as hydrogen sulphide (H2S) and oxides of nitrogen (NOx)

Reasons (R): They are re-injected into ground rather than being dumped to river or ponds.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.36) Which one among the following is not a unit of measurement of surface ozone?

[1] Microgram per meter cube

[2] Nanogram per meter cube

[3] Dobson unit

[4] Parts per million

Correct Answer: 3

Q.37) Match the column:

(A) Toxic Pollutant

(B) Nontoxic Pollutant

(D) Pathogenic Pollutant

(I) Chlorine

(II) Protozoa

(III) Benzene

(IV) Food cans.

[1] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[2] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[3] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[4] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.38) Match the column:

(A) Wind Energy

(B) Thermal Energy

(D) Photovoltaic energy

(I) Emission of Green House Gases

(II) Loss of riparian vegetation

(III) Hazardous for birds and bats

(IV) Production of toxic wastes

[1] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[2] A-IV B-II C-I D-III

[3] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[4] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 4

Q.39) Match the column:

(A) Flist

(B) Klist

(D) Ulist

(I) Hazardous wastes from specific industrial processes

(II) Discarded chemicals exceeding 25 kilograms per month

(III) Hazardous wastes from non-specific sources

(IV) Discarded chemicals exceeding 1 kilogram per month

[1] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[2] A-II B-III C-I D-IV

[3] A-IV B-II C-III D-I

[4] A-I B-IV C-II D-III

Correct Answer: 1

Q.40) Modern Universities were established in India in 1857 at-

[1] Calcutta, Madras and Hyderabad

[2] Calcutta, Madras and Bombay

[3] Calcutta, Bombay and Hyderabad

[4] Calcutta, Banaras and Hyderabad

Correct Answer: 2

Q.41) Which among the following is not related to the ranking of World Universities?

[1] Times higher ranking

[2] QS ranking

[3] Madrid ranking

[4] Shanghai ranking

Correct Answer: 3

Q.42) Which among the following are related to the quality of research articles?

(A) number of research articles

(B) impact factor

(D) frequency of their publication

(E) h-index

[1] A B C

[2] B C D E

[3] B C E

[4] A B C E

Correct Answer: 3

Q.43) Match the column:

(A) Integrity

(B) Team work

(D) Positivity

(I) Having a good attitude

(II) Dedication and hard work

(III) Do the right thing

(IV) Helping and cooperating with each other

[1] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

[2] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

[3] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[4] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

Correct Answer: 1

Q.44) Which of the following were important aspects of the Ninth Five Year plans (1997-2002) pertaining to higher education in India?

(A) Improvement in quality and systemic efficiency

(B) Conferring autonomous status by UGC on selected colleges

(D) Vocationalisation of higher education

(E) Improvement of quality and relevance of technical education

[1] B, C, D, E

[2] A, B, D, E

[3] A, E

[4] C, D

Correct Answer: 2

Q.45-49)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

Reflected evaluation demands reasoning regarding relative importance, not just counting. This is an exercise in which we are constantly engaged. To that general understanding has to be added the possible importance of public reasoning as a way of extending the reach and reliability of valuations and making them more robust. The necessity of scrutiny and critical assessment is not just a demand for self-centred evaluation by secluded individuals, but a pointer to the fruitfulness of public discussion and of interactive public reasoning : social evaluations may be starved of useful information and good arguments if they are entirely based on separated and sequestered cogitation. Public discussion and deliberation can lead to a better understanding of the role. reach and significance of particular functionings and their combinations. To illustrate, public discussion of gender-based inequalities in India has helped to bring out, in recent years. the importance of certain freedoms that did not receive adequate acknowledgement earlier. Examples include the freedom to depart from fixed and time honoured family roles that limit the social and economic opportunities of women, and also from a social value system that is more geared to recognising men’s deprivation than women’s. These traditional antecedents of gender inequality in well-established, male- dominated societies demand not only individual concern but also informative public discussion and often enough, agitation. The connection between public reasoning and the choice and weighting of capabilities in social assessment is important to emphasize. It also points to the absurdity of the argument that is sometimes presented, which claims that the capability approach would be usable and operational. only if it comes with a set of given weights on the distinct functionings in some fixed list of relevant capabilities.

Q.45) Reflective evaluation takes into account :

[1] Subjective perception of public issues

[2] Mere counting of societal developments

[3] General understanding and public reasoning

[4] Extensive arguments on inequalities

Correct Answer: 3

Q.46) A robust and critical evaluation will result in :

[1] Interactive public discussions

[2] Self-centred assessment

[3] Availability of useful information

[4] Sequestered cogitation

Correct Answer: 1