Q.1-5)

Q.1) Assuming that there are no absentees, what is the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination?

[1] More than 50000

[2] 25635

[3] 26973

[4] 27000

Correct Answer: 4

Q.2) What is the ratio of the total number of candidates who scored more than 50 marks in Physics to those who scored more than 40 marks in Mathematics?

[1] 17:49

[2] 18:41

[3] 43:61

[4] 85:199

Correct Answer: 2

Q.3) If securing over 40% marks is the qualifying criteria for each subject, then the ratio of the number of candidates who qualify in Mathematics compared to those who qualify in Computer science is

[1] 15:42

[2] 1:2

[3] 56:1

[4] 1:61

Correct Answer: 4

Q.4) If securing over 60% marks is the qualifying criteria for the subject of Computer science, then what is the approximate percentage of qualified candidates in the subject of computer science (Assume no absentees)?

[1] 12.65%

[2] 8.76%

[3] 8.65%

[4] 0%

Correct Answer: 2

Q.5) If securing over 60% marks is the qualifying criteria for each of the three subjects of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics, then the number of candidates who have qualified in all three subjects is

[1] 0

[2] 90

[3] 6

[4] 5

Correct Answer: 1

Q.6) The view that teaching-learning situations may be characterized to fall on a continuum ranging from memory level to reflective level was advanced by

[1] Kurt Lewin

[2] Stephen M. Corey

[3] Morris L. Bigge

[4] B. F. Skinner

Correct Answer: 3

Q.7) Which committee/commission recommended the choice-based credit system in higher education?

[1] Administrative and Academic Reform Committee of the UGC

[2] Justice Verma Commission on Teacher Education

[3] Ramamurti Committee on Higher Education

[4] Chattopadhyay Committee on Teacher Education

Correct Answer: 1

Q.8) A teacher in a particular college assigns percentile ranks to indicate his/her students’ performance in the unit tests conducted. What type of assessment procedure will it be called?

[1] Criterion-referenced

[2] Norm-referenced

[3] Formative

[4] Summative

Correct Answer: 2

Q.9) Which of the following support materials in learning use the procedures of programmed Instructional Technology based on Skinner and Crowder’s principles?

A. Modular instructional material

B. Branching programmes based material

C. Linear programmes based materials

D. Specially prepared supplement programme materials

E. Lecture outlines with components of ‘to reflect’ and ‘to do’

[1] B and C only

[2] A and C only

[3] C and D only

[4] D and E only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.10) Identify the features of understanding level teaching from the following-

A. The teacher takes the initiative in organizing subject matter, in structuring the various units and in controlling the practice taken up by students

B. It is basically devoted to helping students in seeing of relationships and tool use of a fact.

C. It is directed at problem raising and problem-solving in a collaborative manner

D. It is aimed at the conceptualization of ideas and facts

E. The purpose is to promote autonomy in the learning process through self-regulation

[1] AB

[2] BD

[3] CD

[4] DE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.11) A university teacher administers a self-made test for summative evaluation of his/her students. The distribution of scores of students is found to be positively skewed.

What inference he/she should make about the difficulty level of this test?

[1] The test is much too easy for students

[2] The test is difficult for students

[3] The test is quite interesting to students

[4] The test is favouring those students who are low rankers

Correct Answer: 2

Q.12) A college teacher intends to find out as to what extent student involvement in learning of boys and girls from rural/urban areas is attributable to the socio-economic status of the family from which they hail. What will be designated as an independent variable in this research project?

[1] Student involvement in learning

[2] Socio-economic status of the family

[3] Rural/urban areas

[4] Gender (Boys and Girls)

Correct Answer: 2

Q.13) A research scholar finds through statistical analysis that the value of ‘t’ is significant. What decision is warranted on the basis of this hypothesis?

A. The Null hypothesis should be rejected

B. The research hypothesis should be accepted

C. The null hypothesis should be accepted

D. The research hypothesis should be rejected

E. No decision is warranted in respect of research hypothesis

[1] AB

[2] BC

[3] CD

[4] DE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.14) Which of the following are the characteristics of a ‘good sample’ in research?

A. Readily accessible

B. Representative of population characteristics

C. Serving the personal considerations of the researcher

D. Precision and accuracy in approximating the parameters

E. Freedom from bias

[1] ABC

[2] BDE

[3] BCD

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.15) Statement I: In research, formulation of policies for admission tests/screening cannot neglect the constitutional provisions

Statement II: While awarding research degrees the minorities quota have to be protected in the interest of equity

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

Correct Answer: 3

Q.16) Reframing in communication means –

[1] Employment of new metaphors

[2] Rejecting the conventional expressions

[3] Opting for hyperbole

[4] Preferring oppositional binaries

Correct Answer: 1

Q.17) Which of the following contribute for effective cross-cultural communication?

A. Quick flow of words

B. Use of foreign words

C. Selection of simple words

D. Taking turns to speak

E. Maintenance of etiquette

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] ADE

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 4

Q.18) Statement I: Cross communication promotes teamwork in the classroom

Statement Il: Exactness of communication in a cross-cultural setting is flexible and responsive

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.19) The emergence of media of communication, in chronological sequence, is

A. Radio

B. Newspaper

C. Film

D. Television

E. Internet

[1] ACDEB

[2] BCADE

[3] CDEAB

[4] DECBA

Correct Answer: 2

Q.20) Match the column:

A. Prayer in silence

B. Teacher talking to students outside the classroom

C. The CEO of a company issues a circular to his subordinates

D. Rumour mongering among employees of an organization

I. Vertical communication

II. Grapevine

III. Inter-personal communication

IV. Group communication

[1] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[2] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[3] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[4] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.21) The salary of Hamid was reduced by 10%. By what per cent should his salary be raised to bring it back to his original salary?

[1] 10%

[2] 11%

[3] 11 1/7%

[4] 11 1/9%

Correct Answer: 4

Q.22) For the below fractions, which one of the following is in the correct descending order?

A. 6/11

B. 4/9

C. 3/8

D. 2/5

E. 5/13

[1] A>B>D>E>C

[2] A>D>B>E>C

[3] A>B>D>C>E

[4] A>D>B>C>E

Correct Answer: 1

Q.23) The time is 2:15 pm. What is the angle between the hour and the minute hand?

[1] 20 1/2°

[2] 30°

[3] 22 1/2°

[4] 25°

Correct Answer: 3

Q.24) Statement I: The mean is the numerical average and is found by adding up all the values and dividing the sum by the number of values

Statement II: The mean of the following wages is 16000-

i) 12000

ii) 10000

iii) 23000

iv) 15000

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.25) If January 1, 2007, was a Monday, then January 1, 2008, is a

[1] Sunday

[2] Monday

[3] Tuesday

[4] Wednesday

Correct Answer: 3

Q.26) Next letter in the logical pattern O, T, T, F, F,S,S,E N, __is

[1] N

[2] E

[3] F

[4] T

Correct Answer: 4

Q.27) A’s father has five sons. Names of four sons are M,O,Q and S. What is the name of his fifth son?

[1] T

[2] U

[3] A

[4] K

Correct Answer: 3

Q.28) Match the column:

A. owl:flight

B. bell:chime

C. knife:cut

D. farmer:crop

I. dairy farmer:milk

II. Snake:crawl

III. thunder:roar

IV. sword:slaughter

[1] A-II B-IV C-III D-I

[2] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[3] A-I B-IV C-II D-III

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.29) Today is what day if, day before yesterday it was 13th of the present month and 3rd day of the last month, with 31 days, was a tuesday?

[1] Sunday

[2] Tuesday

[3] Wednesday

[4] Friday

Correct Answer: 3

Q.30) Statement I: If A, B and C are standing in a circle looking at the centre and B is just left of A, then C is just right of B

Statement II: If X, Y and Z are standing in a circle looking at the centre and X is just right of Y, then Z is just right of X

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statemeant I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.31) Consider the following sizes of computer memory. Choose the correct ascending order-

A. MB

B. GB

C. KB

D. TB

[1] BDAC

[2] DBAC

[3] ABCD

[4] CABD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.32) Statement I: Printed output from a computer system is called soft copy

Statement Il: RAM is a read/write memory

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.33) Which one of the following is NOT used to avail internet connectivity?

[1] Wi-Fi

[2] 3G

[3] Scanner

[4] 4G

Correct Answer: 3

Q.34) Match the column:

A. Input device

B. Output device

C. Software

D. Web browser

I. Chrome

II. MS-office

III. Mouse

IV. Monitor

[1] A-II B-III C-I D-IV

[2] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

[3] A-I B-II C-IV D-III

[4] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Radha receives an email claiming that her credit card account is about to be suspended unless she emails her credit card details and personal identification number (PIN) immediately. What is this an example of?

[1] Spamming

[2] Phishing

[3] Virus Signing

[4] Scanning

Correct Answer: 2

Q.36) To put the world on a least cost pathway to limiting global warming to 2°C above the pre-industrial level, global greenhouse gas emissions by 2030 with reference to 2017, require reduction to the extent of

[1] 25%

[2] 15%

[3] 10%

[4] 20%

Correct Answer: 1

Q.37) Identify the correct sequence in decreasing order of the carbon content per unit mass of the following carbon reservoirs in the aquatic environment of oceans

A. Sediments

B. Living organisms

C. Dissolved organic matter

D. Dissolved inorganic matter

[1] DABC

[2] ADCB

[3] BCAD

[4] CBAD

Correct Answer: 2

Q.38) Assertion A: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) need to be phased out to protect the Ozone layer

Reason R: HFCs have a high global warming potential

[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is correct but R is not correct

[4] A is not correct but R is correct

Correct Answer: 4

Q.39) Match the column:

A. Kyoto protocol

B. Paris Agreement

C. Rio Summit

D. International Solar Alliance

I. Convention on biodiversity

II. Affordable, reliable clean energy

III. Nationally determined contribution

IV. Joint implementation

[1] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[2] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[3] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[4] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 3

Q.40) Mitigation measures to cope with Floods include

A. Elevating or protecting electrical service panels

B. Upsizing culverts to better handle flood surges

C. Protecting facilities with barriers and sandbags

D. Removing trees and debris from the flood plain

E. Relocating equipment outside the flood plain

[1] ACDE

[2] ABCE

[3] ABCDE

[4] BCDE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.41) Statement I: An institution in the field of higher education seeking deemed to be university status must have been in existence for at least 10 years

Statement II: A deemed to be university must have at least five post-graduate departments

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.42) According to National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF), the level 8 competency is equivalent to-

[1] Post graduate degree

[2] Under graduate degree

[3] Under graduate (honors) degree

[4] Doctoral degree

Correct Answer: 3

Q.43) MHRD’s scheme ‘VIDWAN’, is aimed at

[1] Creating a database and national research network

[2] Making available e-resources

[3] Promoting entrepreneurship among faculty

[4] Awarding national professorship to a faculty

Correct Answer: 1

Q.44) In ancient India, the eligibility criterion in respect of age for students seeking admission to Takshhshila University was set at

[1] 22 years

[2] 20 years

[3] 18 years

[4] 16 years

Correct Answer: 4

Q.45) Kothari Commission had recommended a certain percentage of national income to be invested in education. What was that percentage?

[1] 10%

[2] 8%

[3] 6%

[4] 5%

Correct Answer: 3

Q.45-50)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

To be swayed by emotions can surely be a problem, but otherwise, emotions are such a wealth within us that they are rightly called a source of human energy, information and influence. When we understand them well and handle them wisely, they can help us mend fences or move mountains. They touch our hearts and a rich life is necessarily one that is centred in the heart. To love and be loved is the greatest privilege of life, said Chinmaya, the popular teacher of the Vedanta.

To put in efforts towards understanding our own and others’ emotions leads to an enhancement of our Emotional Quotient (EQ). By broadening our outlook, we can discard false judgments and this leads to the rise of healthy emotions within us. Just to be aware of the factors that activate particular emotions that arise in us, paves the way to a better handling of these forces at work. We need to train ourselves to be rightly assertive in the face of injustice or some unfair treatment meted out to us. This means that we rise above all passivity that is inaction and at the same time avoid aggressive behaviour that could be harsh or violent. Even skills that we develop to handle stress fall under emotional maturity for a lot of stress is the result of certain negative emotions making situations look darker than what they actually are. Developing empathy is another aspect of emotional growth, where we “emotionally read” others and thus relate with them very accurately rather than in some imagined way.

Q.46) Human emotions are –

A. Neither good nor bad

B. Source of human energy

C. Passive in nature

D. Beneficial when handled wisely

[1] AB

[2] BC

[3] CD

[4] BD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.47) Used properly, emotions lead us to

[1] Accumulate wealth

[2] A rich and joyous life

[3] Being judgemental

[4] Relate with others in some imagined way

Correct Answer: 2

Q.48) By a clear assessment of emotional factors, we can become

[1] Highly aggressive

[2] Rigidly judicious

[3] Passively righteous

[4] Better handlers of negativity

Correct Answer: 4

Q.49) Emotional maturity

[1] Handles negative emotions effectively

[2] Makes a person passive

[3] Makes life look darker than what it is

[4] May give rise to aggressive behavior against injustice

Correct Answer: 1

Q.50) Developing empathy makes a person

[1] Understand himself

[2] Relate with others emotionally

[3] Cope with stress

[4] Relate to others in some imagined way

Correct Answer: 2