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November 2020: Paper 1 (Conducted on 5th Nov 2020 : Evening Shift)

Q.1-5)

Q.1) In which city the distribution of paper is minimum?

[1] Jaipur

[2] Lucknow

[3] Delhi

[4] Varanasi

Correct Answer: 4

Q.2) What is the percentage of distributed newspapers compared to printed newspapers?

[1] 83.5%

[2] 84.0%

[3] 82.0%

[4] 82.5%

Correct Answer: 1

Q.3) What is the percentage of distribution of newspaper C in all the cities as compared to total number of newspapers distributed?

[1] 16.46%

[2] 17.36%

[3] 18.42%

[4] 16.36%

Correct Answer: 2

Q.4) What is the ratio of distribution of Newspaper A to newspaper B?

[1] 16 : 15

[2] 7 : 5

[3] 19 : 15

[4] 17 : 15

Correct Answer: 3

Q.5) What is the ratio of total distributed paper to total newspaper printed?

[1] 5 : 6

[2] 51 : 60

[3] 167 : 200

[4] 52 : 61

Correct Answer: 3

Q.6) If teaching is viewed as a continuum, which of the following modality, involves active ‘give’ and ‘take’ between the teacher and learner?

[1] Training

[2] Conditioning

[3] Instruction

[4] Indoctrination

Correct Answer: 3

Q.7) What is the correct sequence from lower to higher, for indicating learning outcomes related to affective domain?

(A) Receiving

(B) Valuing

(D) Organization

(E) Characterization

[1] ABCDE

[2] ACBDE

[3] CDEAB

[4] BCADE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.8) Statement I: Ability of an individual or group implies the components of knowledge, skill and experience.

Statement I : Willingness of an individual or group implies the components of confidence, commitment and motivation.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: 1

Q.9) Match the column:

A. Planning

B. Organizing

C. Motivation

D. Controlling

I. It involves feedback of results and follow up to compare accomplishments

II. It involves engagement in task relevant activities

III. It involves bringing together resources and people

IV. It involves setting goals and objectives

[1] A-IV B- III C-II D-I

[2] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[3] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[4] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

Correct Answer: 1

Q.10) Assertion (A): The use of ICT has a great potential for optimising learning outcomes.

Reason (R): ICT promotes scope for variety, flexibility and attractiveness.

[1] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

[2] Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (4)

[3] (A) is true but (R) is false

[4] (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.11) Identify the non-probability sampling procedures from the following :

(A) Simple random sampling

(B) Quota sampling

(D) Snowball sampling

(B) Dimensional sampling

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] BDE

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 3

Q.12) A college principal conducts an ethnographic probe into the problems faced by tribal students. Which method of sampling will be most appropriate?

[1] Random sampling

[2] Stratified sampling

[3] Cluster sampling

[4] Systematic sampling

Correct Answer: 3

Q.13) Statement I: Fundamental research is directed at exploring the applicability of truths and principles already established.

Statement II : Action research aims at ameliorating the ongoing conditions and practices.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: 4

Q.14) Assertion (A): Research ethics and its observance is necessary in the interest of credibility and quality of research.

Reason (R) : The policy making bodies have to be accountable for pursuing research with an eye on promoting excellence.

[1] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

[2] Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

[3] (A) is true but (R) is false

[4] (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.15) A researcher intends to find out the differences in motivational outlook of first degree level students in terms of their belongingness to rural/urban areas and the educational status of parents. What will be the dependent variable in this study?

[1] Belongingness to rural/urban areas

[2] First degree level

[3] Educational status of parents

[4] Motivational outlook

Correct Answer: 4

Q.16) Distance in Inter-personal communication is indicative of one’s

[1] Showmanship

[2] Social Strategy

[3] Culture

[4] Business-like approach

Correct Answer: 3

Q.17) Identify the correct sequence of the following elements in the latter part of the communication process after decoding :

(A) Environment

(B) Feedback

(D) Interference

[1] ABCD

[2] BCDA

[3] CDAB

[4] BACD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.18) Match the column:

A. synchronous media

B. asynchronous media

C. rich media

D. hyper media

I. application of multi-media

II. interactive multi-media

III. e-mail

IV. telephone

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[3] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[4] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

Correct Answer: 2

Q.19) Assertion (A): Effective communicators align appearance with body language and tone.

Reason (R) : Such an alignment forms part of the art of persuasion.

[1] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

[2] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of(A)

[3] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

[4] (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Correct Answer: 1

Q.20) Which of the following are contributive to positive influence on teacher-student communication?

(A) Making assumptions

(B) Limited interaction

(D) Acknowledging participation

(E) Persuasive attitude

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 3

Q.21) A pipe normally fills a tank in 12 hours. But due to a leak, it takes 8 hours more. If the tank is full, how many hours will the leak take to empty it?

[1] 12

[2] 22

[3] 30

[4] 33

Correct Answer: 3

Q.22) What is the remainder when 64 divides 1671?

[1] 4

[2] 5

[3] 6

[4] 7

Correct Answer: 4

Q.23) Statement I: Two triangles are said to be congruent if their corresponding angles are equal and corresponding sides are proportional.

Statement II: Two triangles are said to be similar if their corresponding angles and corresponding sides are equal.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.24) Find the wrong number in the series :

7, 8, 18, 57, 228, 1165, 6996

[1] 1165

[2] 228

[3] 57

[4] 18

Correct Answer: 2

Q.25) Statement I: When we perform an experiment, then the set S of all possible outcomes is called the sample space.

Statement II: Any superset of a sample space is called an event.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.26) In terms of the relationship indicated below, which word will correctly pair to replace the question mark? .

Frown:Pain::Smile:_____?______

[1] Joy

[2] Sorrow

[3] Failure

[4] Discomfiture

Correct Answer: 1

Q.27) Assertion (A): Since the perception of hardness is not necessarily connected with its colour, it can be said that all the perceptions seen conjoined but never connected.

Reason (R) : Causal relationship is always contingent and probable because it is derived from experience.

[1] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

[2] Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

[3] (A) is true but (R) is false

[4] (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.28) Given below are two propositions :

All philosophers are fallible.

Hegel is not fallible.

In the classical square of opposition. which one of the following is the correct option for this?

[1] Contrary

[2] Sub contrary

[3] Contradictory

[4] Subaltern

Correct Answer: 3

Q.29) Given below are two propositions :

Some animals are fierce.

Some animals are not fierce.

In the classical square of opposition which one of the following is the correct option?

[1] Subaltern

[2] Contradictory

[3] Contrary

[4] Sub-contrary

Correct Answer: 4

Q.30) Match the column:

A. causality is apriori

B. causality is synthetic

C. causality is dialectical

D. causality is material

I. aristotle

II. hegel

III. hume

IV. kant

[1] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[2] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[3] A-I B-IV C-III D-II

[4] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.31) CDMA stands for-

[1] Code Division Multiplexed Access

[2] Code Division Multiple Access

[3] Code Division Mobile Access

[4] Code Division Mobile Adapter

Correct Answer: 2

Q.32) In display technology CRT stands for

[1] Cathode Ray Transmission

[2] Computer Ray Transmission

[3] Cathode Ray Tube

[4] Cathode Ray Transducer

Correct Answer: 3

Q.33) Statement I: External hard disk is a primary memory.

Statement II : In general, pen drives have more storage capacity than external hard disks.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.34) Match the column:

(A) Web 2.0 Applications

(B) Search Engines

(D) High level languages

I. Windows 8, i-OS

II. C++, Java

III. Blogs, Twitter

IV. Google, Yahoo

[1] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[2] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[3] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[4] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Which of the following statements are true?

(A) An algorithm may produce no output

(B) An algorithm expressed in a programming language is called a computer program.

(D) An algorithm can have infinite sequence of instructions.

[1] AB

[2] ABD

[3] CD

[4] BC

Correct Answer: 4

Q.36) Exposure to excessive noise pollution can cause

(A) Hearing impairment

(B) Insomnia

(D) Respiratory disease

(E) Reduced work efficiency

[1] ACE

[2] ACD

[3] BCE

[4] ABCE

Correct Answer: 4

Q.37) In Photo Voltaic system (PV-system) arrange the following from smallest to the largest unit-

(A) Module

(B) Array

(D) Array field

[1] BDAC

[2] BDCA

[3] CBDA

[4] CABD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.38) Which of the following types of particulate matter pollutants are used in calculation of Air Quality Index (AQI)?

(A) TSP (Total Suspended Particles)

(B) PM 10 (Particulate matters of size 10 micron or less)

(D) PM 1 (Particulate matter of size 1 micron or less)

[1] BCD

[2] AB

[3] BC

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 3

Q.39) Match the column:

A. Montreal Protocol

B. Kyoto Protocol

C. Convention on Biodiversity

D. International Solar Alliance

I. clean affordable energy

II. controlling consumption and production of halons

III. emission trading

IV. clearing house mechanism

[1] A-IV B-II C-III D-I

[2] A-II B-I C-III D-IV

[3] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.40) Match the column:

A. vinyl chloride

B. polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)

C. Benzo(a)pyrene

D. polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

I. electric insulation

II. fuel combustion

III. plastics industrial uses

IV. waste incineration

[1] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[2] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

[3] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

[4] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

Correct Answer: 4

Q.41) In which year, All India Council for Technical Education was set up as a statutory body by an Act of Parliament?

[1] 1986

[2] 1987

[3] 1988

[4] 1989

Correct Answer: 2

Q.42) Which are the characteristics of an effective team in an institution of higher learning?

(A) The atmosphere tends to be informal in which members of team are involved.

(B) There is a lot of discussion in which everyone participates.

(D) The members of the group are not afraid of putting forth their ideas.

(E) The members of the group avoid disagreement and conflict among themselves.

[1] ABCD

[2] BCDE

[3] CDEA

[4] EABC

Correct Answer: 1

Q.43) Helping individuals and social groups acquire social values, contributes to development of :

[1] Environmental awareness

[2] Environmental knowledge

[3] Environmental attitude

[4] Environmental skills

Correct Answer: 3

Q.44) The principal responsibilities of Academic Council in a University include-

(A) Maintenance of quality and standards of academic programmes

(B) Planning, coordination, development, oversight and review of academic programmes of University

(D) Framing and revising/updating the contents of courses of various academic programmes.

(E) Approval of fee structure for various academic programmes

[1] AB

[2] ABDE

[3] ABCD

[4] ABCE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.45) match the column:

A. development

B. managerial

C. laissez-faire

D. judgemental

I. concerned with doing and achieving

II. concerned with moral, ethical and profession values

III. concerned with maintenance of social control

IV. concerned with the importance of self-development

[1] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

[2] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[3] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

[4] A-IV B-II C-III D-I

Correct Answer: 2

Q.46-50)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

‘Power’ has been differentiated by numerous authors and practitioners. Amitai Etzioni was among the first to describe individuals who are able to induce other individuals to comply and take action because of their position in the organization as having position power; those who derive their power from their followers are considered to have personal power. Some are skilled enough to have both. Position power is the extent to which those people to whom managers report are willing to delegate authority and responsibility to them. So position power tends to flow down in an organization. This is not to say that leaders do not have any impact on how much position power they accrue. They certainly do. The confidence and trust they develop with the people around them will often determine the willingness of upper management to delegate to them. Remember, though. that whatever power is delegated downward can also be taken back. Personal power is the extent to which followers respect, feel good about, and are committed to the leader. They believe that their own needs and goals will be recognized, supported. and facilitated by their leader. As such personal power in an organisational setting comes from below—from the followers— and so flows up in an organisation. Personal power is not inherent in the leader. If it were, managers with personal power could take over any department and have the same commitment and rapport they had in their last department. Personal power is a day-to-day phenomenon. Personal power is a critical part of having and demonstrating emotional intelligence.

Q.46) When individuals in an organisation ask others to comply with their instructions, it is identified as-

[1] organisational power

[2] positional power

[3] authoritarian power

[4] delegated power

Correct Answer: 2

Q.47) Personal power emanates from-

[1] the group of managers

[2] the delegation of responsibility

[3] the followers

[4] the top-level executives in an organisation

Correct Answer: 3