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UGC NET Paper 1 November 2020 (Conducted on 11th November 2020 : Morning Shift)​

November 2020: Paper 1 (Conducted on 11th Nov 2020 : Morning Shift)

Q.1-5)

Q.1) What is the average number of pages printed by printer C on Monday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday taken together?

[1] 33

[2] 33.25

[3] 34

[4] 34.25

Correct Answer: 4

Q.2) Which printer has printed third lowest number of pages in all the five days taken together?

[1] B

[2] C

[3] D

[4] E

Correct Answer: 3

Q.3) In all five days of printing, what percentage of pages printed by printer D has been printed by printer E?

[1] 75%

[2] 80%

[3] 82%

[4] 85%

Correct Answer: 2

Q.4) What is the ratio between pages printed by printer E on Monday and pages printed by printer D on Wednesday?

[1] 5 : 6

[2] 6 : 5

[3] 15 : 6

[4] 5 : 8

Correct Answer: 4

Q.5) Total number of pages printed by all printers in five days is

[1] 678

[2] 686

[3] 698

[4] 708

Correct Answer: 3

Q.6) The goal of teaching as compared to training is to provide opportunity of :

[1] Promotion of organized ideas as a result of disciplined drill

[2] Sharing and caring leading to critical and creative reflection

[3] Establishing beliefs and values leading to change in attitude

[4] Associating ideas which are similar and dissimilar

Correct Answer: 2

Q.7) In Gagne’s ‘Learning hierarchy’ which of the learning types immediately precedes Concept learning?

[1] Signal learning

[2] S-Learning

[3] Chain learning

[4] Discrimination learning

Correct Answer: 4

Q.8) There is abundant scope for promoting concept learning under which stage of development of learner?

[1] During infancy

[2] During childhood

[3] During adolescence

[4] During pre adolescence

Correct Answer: 3

Q.9) Statement I: Use of programmed instructional material as supplement has the potential to optimise learning outcomes.

Statement II : ICT, if used judiciously, will render teaching learning systems effective and efficient.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: 1

Q.10) Assertion (A): To ensure successful teaching-learning systems both Norm-Reference Testing (NRT) and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) procedures for the interpretation of scores have to be synthesized.

Reason (R): Parents and educational administrators along with the students

themselves need to know the status of accomplishment in terms of laid down criteria and relative positions of the participants vis-a-vis that of others.

[1] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

[2] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

[3] (A) is true but (R) is false

[4] (A)is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.11) In which of the following methods of research, hypotheses are usually implied rather than being explicit?

[1] Descriptive survey method

[2] Historical method

[3] Experimental method

[4] Ex-post facto method

Correct Answer: 2

Q.12) Identify the features of qualitative research from the following :

(A) Researcher becomes immersed in the situation present or past

(B) Researcher is detached from the study to avoid bias

(C) It develops context-bound generalizations

(D) It is based on logical positivist philosophy

(B) It uses an emergent research design

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] ACE

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 3

Q.13) Match the column:

(A) Stratified sampling

(B) Cluster sampling

(C) Systematic sampling

(D) Dimensional sampling

(I) The units/members are chosen to represent various areas of characteristics so defined

(II) Every unit has independent and equal chance of being picked up

(III) The units are groups and are chosen intact

(IV) The members are selected using the interval obtained by N/n – the N= aggregate, n= desired sub-aggregate

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[3] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.14) Statement I: Every research institute has to enforce research ethics in order to ensure credibility and meaningfulness of human inquiry

Statement II : ICT and its use in research has abetted ethical lapses in the conduct of research wherever it has been put in place.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: 3

Q.15) Assertion (A): The purpose of research is also to revisit the situations in a bid to ensure needed amelioration and improvement.

Reason (R): Action research is a format of research which is basically directed at bettering the situations.

[1] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

[2] Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

[3] (A) is true but (R) is false

[4] (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.16) The impact of classroom communication should be so regulated that it should result in-

[1] Exchange of ideas and information

[2] Top-down designer communication

[3] Back room learning

[4] Minimum opportunity for feedback

Correct Answer: 1

Q.17) In a classroom, due to which of the following limitations it is easy to talk about something we do not want to?

(A) Infrastructure

(B) Working memory

(C) Conscious awareness

(D) Yestags

(E) Mental disagreements

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.18) Statement I: A straight forward admission of one’s own limitations is acceptable in an academic eco-system.

Statement II: Sweet corporate talk tends to enmask the weakness of a teacher and makes him/her popular in the long run.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.19) Find out the correct sequence of selectivity stages in mass communication?

(A) Exposure

(B) Retention

(C) Attitudinal change

(D) Perception

(E) Attention

[1] ABCED

[2] BCDEA

[3] CEDAB

[4] AEDBC

Correct Answer: 4

Q.20)

(A) Non-verbal communication

(B) Listening

(C) Empathetic conversation

(D) Stress management through communication

(I) Reflects confidence in one’s self

(II) Occupies more space for personal communication

(III) Helps internalize messages

(IV) Seeing things from another’s viewpoint

[1] A-I B-II C-IV D-III

[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

Correct Answer: 2

Q.21) Six girls A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. Only B is standing between D and F. A does not stand next to either F or D. C does not stand next to D. Only E stands between A and C.

(A) Only F stands between B and C

(B) Only C stands between A and F

(C) D and A occupy extreme ends

(D) Only E stands between F and A

(E) Only B stands between D and F

[1] ABCD

[2] ACE

[3] BCD

[4] BDE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.22) If √(4)^n 256, then √n is equal to :

[1] √2

[2] 2√2

[3] 2

[4] 4

Correct Answer: 2

Q.23) A trader marks up the price of goods he sells by 50% and gives a discount of 20%. Besides this, he also weighs the goods by 20% less. What is the net profit he gets?

[1] 20%

[2] 25%

[3] 40%

[4] 50%

Correct Answer: 4

Q.24) A man walks 400 meters in north direction, took a left turn and walks 600 meters. He again takes left turn and walks for 400 meters. How far and in which direction he is from his original position?

[1] 400 meters, East

[2] 400 meters, West

[3] 600 meters, West

[4] 600 meters, South

Correct Answer: 3

Q.25) A man reaches his office 30 minutes late if he walks by 2/3rd of his routine speed. What is the time he usually takes to reach office?

[1] 30 minutes

[2] 60 minutes

[3] 90 minutes

[4] 45 minutes

Correct Answer: 2

Q.26) Arrange the sequential order of syllogism in Nyaya philosophy :

(A) Pratigya

(B) Hetu

(C) Udaharana

(D) Nigman

(E) Upanaya

[1] ABDEC

[2] ACBED

[3] ADBEC

[4] ACDBE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.27) “Hetvabhasa” (fallacy) produced in the conclusion due to refutation of “Sadhya” by “Hetu” is known as :

[1] Asiddha

[2] Savyabhicara

[3] Viruddha

[4] Satpratipaksha

Correct Answer: 3

Q.28)

(A) Knowledge is recollection

(B) Knowledge is either analytic or synthetic

(C) Knowledge is synthetic apriori.

(D) Knowledge s perception and perception is knowledge

I. Berkeley

II. Kant

III. Hume

IV. Plato

[1] A-I B-IV C-III D-II

[2] A-II B-III C-I D-IV

[3] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[4] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.29) In Universal Negative Proposition, how are the terms distributed? Choose the correct option from the following :

[1] Subject is distributed, predicate is undistributed

[2] Subject is undistributed. predicate s distributed

[3] Both the terms are distributed

[4] Neither the subject is distributed nor the predicate

Correct Answer: 3

Q.30)

(A) Antinomies of pure reason

(B) Law of contradiction

(C) Clearness and distinctness

(D) Pre-established harmony

I. Leibniz

II. Kant

III. Aristotle

IV. Descartes

[1] A-I B-IV C-II D-III

[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[3] A-IV B-II C-III D-I

[4] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

Correct Answer: 2

Q.31) What is the full form of the abbreviation ISP?

[1] International Software Product

[2] Internet Service Provider

[3] Internet Server Product

[4] Internet Software Provider

Correct Answer: 2

Q.32) What is bit rate?

[1] Number of bits stored in computer

[2] Number of bits per second that can be transmitted over a network

[3] Number of bits per hour stored in a computer over a network

[4] Binary digit converted to hexa decimal number frezama?

Correct Answer: 2

Q.33) Methodology for the delivery of voice and multimedia sessions over the internet is called :

[1] TCP/IP

[2] UDP

[3] VoIP

[4] Chat

Correct Answer: 3

Q.34) Which of the following is true about the wireless networking?

(A) It is easier to expand the network

(B) Data is less secured than wired system

(C) Reliability is more than wired

(D) Faster than wired network

[1] ABD

[2] AB

[3] BC

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35)

(A) Output Device

(B) System Software

(C) Storage Device

(D) Application software

I. Operating system

II. Printer

III. MS-office

IV. RAM

[1] A-I B-II C-IV D-III

[2] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[3] A-II B-I C-II D-IV

[4] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 3

Q.36) A multilateral fund for implementation of Montreal Protocol was set up to provide financial and technical assistance to developing countries, parties to Montreal protocol. whose annual per capita consumption and production of ozone depleting substances amounted to less than

[1] 0.3 kg

[2] 0.5 kg

[3] 1.0 kg

[4] 1.5 kg

Correct Answer: 1

Q.37) Arrange the Global Warming Potential of a molecule of the following greenhouse gases (relative to CO2) in decreasing order :

(A) Methane

(B) Nitrous Oxide

(C) CFC-12

(D) CFC-11

(E) Sulphur hexafluoride (SFs)

[1] E > D > C > B > A

[2] C > E > D > B > A

[3] D > E > C > B > A

[4] E > C > D > B > A

Correct Answer: 4

Q.38) Sick Building Syndrome (SBS) is a condition-

[1] When buildings are very old and about to collapse

[2] Of human health due to indoor air pollution

[3] Of fear due to deserted building

[4] Of building devoid of any modern amenities

Correct Answer: 2

Q.39) Statement I: Dioxins and furans are highly toxic substances produced mainly during incineration of municipal solid waste, hazardous and medical wastes.

Statement II : Dioxins and furans play crucial role in photochemical smog formation.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.40) A dish solar cooker-

(A) has reflecting material of anodized aluminium sheet.

(B) has areflectivity of less than 50%

(C) needs to track the sun to deliver power of about 0.6 kW.

(D) uses a parabolic dish to concentrate the incident solar radiation

(E) can have the bottom vessel temperature over 1000°C.

[1] ACDE

[2] ACD

[3] ABCE

[4] ACE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.41) The prominent women scholars reported during the Vedic period are :

A. Gargi

B. Maitreyi

C. Sanghamitra

D. Viswambhara

E. Apala

[1] ABCD

[2] BCDE

[3] ABDE

[4] ACDE

Correct Answer: 3

Q.42) Which is the highest body to advise central and state governments on education?

[1] UGC

[2] CABE

[3] NSDA

[4] NIEPA

Correct Answer: 2

Q.43) Which of the following form part of criteria for assessment of higher education institutions as laid down by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)?

(A) Curricular aspects

(B) Teaching learning and Evaluation

(C) Continuous improvement in attainment of outcomes

(D) Research, innovation and extension

(E) Facilities and Technical support

[1] ABC

[2] ABD

[3] CDE

[4] DEA

Correct Answer: 2

Q.44) In the context of skill based/vocational education, NSQF competency level 8 is equivalent to-

[1] Undergraduate (Hons.) degree

[2] Masters (Post-graduate) degree

[3] Advanced Diploma

[4] Doctorate degree

Correct Answer: 1

Q.45) Statement I: Board of studies is the basic unit of the academic system of the University.

Statement II: The responsibilities of the Board of studies include planning, coordination and review of the academic programmes of university.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.46-49)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

Birds are under severe stress and strain because of human activities and many of them are facing a threat to their survival. The threats come in various ways, such as habitat loss and damage to ecosystems, agricultural and industrial activities and issues like pesticide poisoning and effluent discharges, urbanization and to some extent, hunting and pet trade. A study has noted both long-term and recently recorded annual losses. Some species which were categorised as being of “least concern” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) were found to be seriously endangered. There are reasons for “high concern” over 52% of the species which figured in the study. Some geographical areas present greater threats to them than others. Some species which are found in the Western and the Eastern Ghats are fast dwindling. The Western Ghats, a great home for many birds, have seen the numbers of some of them dwindle as much as 75% in the last two decades. The ecological changes in the Terai grasslands in Northern India have adversely affected birds endemic to them and many migratory species.

Amidst the bleak news, one bright spot is about the sparrows which had disappeared from cities but are now found to be stable in numbers in other areas. That shows some resilience but the conditions that helped them to survive may not be available to other birds. Protection of habitats and other steps to save the birds should get high priority. We are yet to realise that the disappearance of birds from nature or the diminution of their numbers will make life difficult for us. Nature and life-forms that it supports are crucially dependent on each other and the link should not be snapped.

Q.46) The survival of birds in the ecosystem is under threat because of-

[1] conflict with nature

[2] increased population

[3] growing international concerns

[4] fast rate of developmental activities

Correct Answer: 4

Q.47) Most of species have fallen into the category of being-

[1] highly endangered

[2] of least concern

[3] of moderate concern

[4] useful for survival of man

Correct Answer: 1

Q.48) What is one of the positive signs in view of these concerns?

[1] migration of birds to grasslands

[2] climate change for better

[3] increase in protective habitats

[4] stability of survival in areas other than urban

Correct Answer: 4

Q.49) The message flowing from the passage is that-

[1] man is manipulating nature

[2] it is time to take international reports on bird extinction seriously

[3] all life forms on the planet are inter-dependent

[4] resilent conditions have not improved the future of birds.

Correct Answer: 3

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