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UGC NET Paper 1 November 2021 (Conducted on 24th November 2021 : Morning Shift)​

November 2021: Paper 1 (Conducted on 24th Nov 2021 : Morning Shift)

Q.1-5)

Q.1) Find out the total number of students who have cleared the entrance exam from 2016 to 2020 in State A.

[1] 355460

[2] 364420

[3] 360890

[4] 358660

Correct Answer: 2

Q.2) Find out the average number of students who qualified in 2020 (from all states). 2020

[1] 84550

[2] 86770

[3] 85375

[4] 84580

Correct Answer: 3

Q.3) Find out the difference between the total number of students who qualified in 2017 and the total number of students who qualified in 2018 (from all states):

[1] 31750

[2] 31880

[3] 32220

[4] 32340

Correct Answer: 4

Q.4) In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State B?

[1] 2019

[2] 2020

[3] 2016

[4] 2018

Correct Answer: 1

Q.5) Find out the average number of non-qualified candidates in 2019 (from all states).

[1] 135320

[2] 144025

[3] 137270

[4] 139870

Correct Answer: 2

Q.6) What is the name for the technique which uses images that are often more evocative than words, and more precise and potent in triggering a wide range of associations and thinking?

[1] Brainstorming

[2] Story boarding

[3] Synectics

[4] Mind-mapping

Correct Answer: 4

Q.7) The satellite used for the transmission and telecast of SWAYAMPRABHA is called

[1] EDUSAT Satellite

[2] GSAT-15 Satellite

[3] GSAT-3 Satellite

[4] SP-EDU-15 Satellite

Correct Answer: 2

Q.8) Statement I: Personal competencies determine how we manage ourselves

Statement II: Social competencies determine how we handle relationships

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

Correct Answer: 1

Q.9) Match the column:

A. White Hat

B. Red Hat

C. Black Hat

D. Green Hat

I. judgment and caution-the logical negative

II. data gathering-facts, figures, information needs and gaps

III. Provocations, alternatives and creativity-proposals

IV. intuition and emotions

[1] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

[2] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[3] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[4] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.10) Which of the following are in the “Six Thinking Hats System”, a form of parallel thinking?

A. Brown Hat

B. White Hat

C. Violet Hat

D. Red Hat

E. Black Hat

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C,D and E only

[4] B, D and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.11) An extraneous variable is also known as.

[1] Artifact

[2] Dependent variable

[3] Intervener

[4] Contiguous factor

Correct Answer: 1

Q.12) Which of the following are advantages of observation as a tool of data collection?

A. Observation takes place only in natural settings

B. Observation methods demand the active participation of subjects in the programme

C. Observations are known for directness

D. Artificiality can be minimized in observational studies

E. Recording devices can be used in observational studies for accuracy

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] A, B and E only

Correct Answer: 3

Q.13) The characteristics of a normal distribution curve are:

A. It reflects an asymmetrical distribution

B. It is bell-shaped

C. It does not show standard deviations

D. The mean, mode and median coincide at the centre of the distribution

E. The curve is based on an infinite number of observations

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] B, D and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.14) Statement I: A variable measured at the nominal level can be used in higher-level statistics if it is converted into another form.

Statement II: The result of the conversion process is called dummy variable.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement ll are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.15) Match the column:

A. Solomon four group design

B. Post-test only control group design

C. One-shot case study

D. Correlation design

I. It is a cross-sectional design

II. contains an additional set of control and experimental groups

III. omits the pre-tested groups altogether

IV. Observation of a single group at one point of time to observe the change

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

Correct Answer: 2

Q.16) The dynamics of classroom interaction can be effectively managed through

[1] Verbosity

[2] Language complexity

[3] Interpreting perceived meanings

[4] Repetitive symbolism

Correct Answer: 3

Q.17) Which of the following are myths about communication?

A. Good communicators are born, not made

B. Stage fright is not a communication apprehension

C. Communication skills have nothing to do with relationships

D. Communication has its own barriers

E. Practice leads to the right habits of communication

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] A, D and E only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.18) Statement I: One’s perceptions and beliefs are the basis of generalization in communication

Statement II: Generalisations of the environment develop through experiences.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.19) According to Robbins et al, the sequence of barriers to effective communication in an organisation is:

A. Language

B. Emotions

C. Selective perception

D. Information load

E. Filtering

[1] A, B, D, E, C

[2] B,C, D, A, E

[3] D, A, E, C, B

[4] E, C, D, B, A

Correct Answer: 4

Q.20) Match the column:

A. common frame of reference

B. congruence

C. language relevance

D. compatible environment

I. communications with people of similar background

II. use of understandable language

III. messages of common interest between encoder and decoder

IV. compatibility between the receiver and the sender

[1] A-III B-IV C-ID-II

[2] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[3] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 2

Q.21) What number comes next in this sequence?

6,4,2.5,1.5, ?

[1] 1

[2] 0.5

[3] -0.5

[4] -1

Correct Answer: 1

Q.22) How tall is a tree that is 6 meters shorter than a wall that is seven times higher than the tree?

[1] 7 meters

[2] 2 meters

[3] 1.25 meters

[4] 1 meters

Correct Answer: 4

Q.23) If the selling price of Rs. 24 results in a discount of 20% on the list price, what selling price would result in a 30% discount on list price?

[1] 21

[2] 27

[3] 20

[4] 18

Correct Answer: 1

Q.24) Statement I: The number 89325324 is divisible by 66.

Statement II: The set of natural numbers is also called the set of whole numbers.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.25) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. If A’s speed is more than B’s speed, then to travel the same distance, A will take more time than B

B. Two speeds, 1500 m/min and 90 km/hr are equal

C. By walking at a speed of 18 km/hr, the distance covered in 2 minutes and 30 seconds is 750 meters

[1] A and B only

[2] B and C only

[3] A and C only

[4] C only

Correct Answer: 2

Q.26) Match the column:

A. If ‘A” is True

B. If ‘E’ is True

C. If ‘I’ is false

D. If ‘O’ is false

I. ‘E’ is true; ‘O’ is true

II. ‘O’ is false; ‘E’ is false

III. ‘A’ is false; ‘I’ is false

IV. ‘E’ is false; ‘I’ is true

[1] A-IV B-II C-III D-I

[2] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[3] A-II B-III C-I D-IV

[4] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

Correct Answer: 3

Q.27) Match the column:

A. Ashrayasiddha

B. Svarupasiddha

C. Vyapyatvasiddha

D. Anupasmahri

I. sound is eternal because it is visible

II. all real are momentary; sound is real; sound is momentory

III. all objects are eternal because the are knowable

IV. sky lotus is fragrant because it belongs to the class of lotus

[1] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

[2] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[3] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[4] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 3

Q.28) Name the fallacy committed in the argument below:

“All men who understand women are potentially perfect husbands.

All potentially perfect husbands are men of infinite patience. Therefore, some men of infinite patience are men who understand women.”

[1] Illicit major

[2] Undistributed middle

[3] Existential fallacy

[4] Exclusive premises

Correct Answer: 3

Q.29) The middle term of the inference is related to the major term neither as a cause nor as an effect but because they are uniformly related to each other in our experience, is known as

[1] Purvavat

[2] Sheshavat

[3] Samanyatodrshta

[4] Pakshdharmata

Correct Answer: 3

Q.30) Pick the correct option to represent the given argument:

All artists are egoists

Some artists are paupers

Therefore, some paupers are egoists

[1] Figure I

[2] Figure II

[3] Figure III

[4] Figure IV

Correct Answer: 3

Q.31) What is the World Wide Web (www)?

[1] Collection of webpages stored on websites

[2] Interconnected networks

[3] Hypertext processor

[4] Web browser

Correct Answer: 1

Q.32) What is Ethernet?

[1] A protocol used by many wired LANs.

[2] A protocol used for address translation

[3] A security protocol

[4] A collision-detection protocol

Correct Answer: 1

Q.33) Match the column:

A. system software

B. application software

C. security software

D. embedded software

I. library management system

II. firewall

III. compiler

IV. automatic fridge

[1] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[2] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[4] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 4

Q.34) Statement I: DVDs use a single spiral ‘track’ to store data working from the centre to the edge.

Statement II: DVDs are Read-only devices

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.35) Which of the following statements are true?

A. Simplex data transmission is in two-directions only

B. Half-duplex data transmission is in both directions but not at the same time

C. Full-duplex data transmission is in both directions simultaneously

D. Serial data transmission is when data is sent, 8 bit at a time, over a single wire

E. Parallel data transmission is when one bit of data is sent down over a single wire

[1] A, B and C only

[2] C, D and E only

[3] C and D only

[4] B and C only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.36) In agricultural regions, groundwater can have significant concentrations of which pollutant?

[1] Lead

[2] Cadmium

[3] Selenium

[4] Nitrate

Correct Answer: 4

Q.37) Which of the following types of power plants provide electricity consistently running 24 hrs per day, 7 days a week?

[1] Geothermal

[2] Solar

[3] Wind

[4] Hydro

Correct Answer: 1

Q.38) Which of the following Green House bases were the target gases whose emission was to be covered under the first commitment period of the Kyoto protocol?

A. SO,

B. CO2

C. N20

D. NH3

E. CH4

[1] A, B, C and D only

[2] A, B and C only

[3] B, C, D and E only

[4] B, C and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.39) Identify the correct sequence of wind energy potential at 100 m above ground level in decreasing order

A. Karnataka

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Gujarat

D. Tamil Nadu

E. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

[1] A>B>C>E>D

[2] D>C>A>B>E

[3] C>A>B>D>E

[4] C>E>B>D>A

Correct Answer: 3

Q.40) Match the column:

A. lay down standards of legal education

B. maintaining the quality of technical education

C. maintenance of standards in teacher education

D. access to quality and affordable medical education

I. NCTE

II. AICTE

III. NMC

IV. BCI

[1] A-IV B-II C-I D-III

[2] A-I B-II C-IV D-III

[3] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[4] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

Correct Answer: 1

Q.41) University of the ancient period which has been declared by UNESCO as a heritage site is:

A. Mithila

B. Vallabhi

C. Pushpagiri

D. Takshashila

E. Nalanda

[1] A and B only

[2] B and C only

[3] C and D only

[4] D and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.42) The first education commission in Independant India is:

[1] Secondary Education Commission

[2] The Education Commission

[3] University Education Commission

[4] National Knowledge Commission

Correct Answer: 3

Q.43-47) Read RC Passage to Answer:

Despite the fact that social security programmes in India are not responses to structural adjustment but have a long history of their own. Social expenditure in India is nevertheless particularly vulnerable to budget cuts. The social sector is a major spending area of the government, comprising poverty reduction interventions, health, education, nutrition, social assistance and social welfare. Most departments of government are in some way responsible for spending under this broad head.

The sector is highly divisible, thus facilitating incremental and piecemeal reductions in real expenditure. It has a weak political constituency, dominated by technical-expert persons, which the mass of evaluative research that has historically been critical of state interventionism has further weakened. Such work has been put to uses other than those originally intended – not to reform the sector but as justification to abolish major components of it entirely. However, since 1991, social sector expenditure has not declined as much as had been anticipated. Despite, or because of, its departmental pervasiveness, it is an extremely-perhaps uncuttable-low proportion of GNP: 2.4 per cent as compared with 6.5 per cent in Malaysia, 12.2 per cent in Botswana and 15-25 per cent in OECD countries. Even though social sector expenditure is also flawed by spatial patchiness, conflicting time trends in expenditure levels and composition and patterns specific to each component of welfare, cuts have been widely resisted and certain Indian states have increased their current debt in order to protect social expenditure. There is, fortunately, and necessarily, speculative literature predicting, sometimes with illustrations drawn from elsewhere, the likely outcomes of cuts in various types of social expenditure. But it is far too early for these to be evidence of the actual impact on social welfare is a long-term project of several decades.

Q.43) Social security programmes in India encounter the issue of

[1] Direct implementation

[2] Indirect implementation

[3] Increased government intervention

[4] Structural rearrangement

Correct Answer: 4

Q.44) The government spending on poverty reduction programmes suffers from

[1] High demand from prospective beneficiaries

[2] Too many divisible allocations

[3] Down-sized expenditure in real terms

[4] Several social welfare programmes competing for funds

Correct Answer: 3

Q.45) The expert evaluation reports are used to

[1] Reform the social welfare sector

[2] Support the government spending on social sector

[3] Strengthen the political constituency of social security

[4] Justify banishing the social security system

Correct Answer: 4

Q.46) The social sector in India is experiencing-

[1] Avast amount of speculative literature

[2] Upward revision of budget allocations in a few specific areas

[3] Increased current debt account by certain states to protect their social security measures

[4] Change in composition and patterns of social welfare

Correct Answer: 3

Q.47) The gist of the passage is that

[1] The social security system in India should be strengthened

[2] The social welfare system must be abandoned

[3] In actuality, diversification funds to areas other than social welfare are justifiable

[4] There is no evidence as to the utility of social welfare measures in India

Correct Answer: 1

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