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March 2023 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 5th March 2023 : Morning Shift)

March 2023 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 5th March 2023 : Morning Shift)

Q.1-4)

Q.1) If the profitability per outlet is the ratio of average profit per outlet to the average sales per outlet, then the profitability per outlet was the highest in 2020 for the HP-Showroom.

[1] A

[2] B

[3] C

[4] D

Correct Answer: 4

Q.2) HP-Showroom _____experienced the highest percentage increase in average profit per outlet in 2021 over that in 2020.

[1] E

[2] B

[3] A

[4] D

Correct Answer: 4

Q.3) For all the outlets of a given showroom, if the total profit is equal to the total sales minus the total investment, then the total investment of HP-showroom F in the year 2020 was :

[1] Rs 380 lakhs

[2] Rs 330 lakhs

[3] Rs 370 lakhs

[4] Rs 300 lakhs

Correct Answer: 3

Q.4) Total sales from all the outlets of a showroom was the highest in the year 2020 for the HP-showroom_______

[1] A

[2] B

[3] E

[4] C

Correct Answer: 2

Q.5) During ancient period in India which of the following universities developed in connection with temples and became centers of community life in places of their location?

A. Odantapuri

B. Navadeep

C. Valabhi

D. Banaras

[1] AB

[2] BD

[3] CD

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 2

Q.6) Statement-I: The objective of the memory level of teaching is to develop rational and critical thinking among students.

Statement-II: The objective of the reflective level of teaching is the ability to develop independent thinking and decision making among students.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.7) Statement-I: Course material provided through digital platform like SWAYAM, helps learners go through it at any time and at any place.

Statement-II: Discussion boards work as asynchronous medium as anyone can post any question or reply at any time.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.8) Which of the following are the characteristics of Teacher centered classroom management?

A. Discipline comes from self

B. Teacher is the sole leader

C. Students are facilitators for the operations of the classroom

D. Students are allowed limited responsibilities.

[1] ABC

[2] CD

[3] BD

[4] ACD

Correct Answer: 3

Q.9) A person solves linear equations in algebra for a number of days and becomes progressively more efficient in solving linear problems. He not only becomes more accurate in his work but also solves the problems much faster. This progressive improvement in performance is a form of transfer known as ______

[1] Learning to learn

[2] Generalization

[3] Transposition

[4] Identification

Correct Answer: 1

Q.10) Which of the following statement best describes lecture method of teaching?

[1] Small step presentation with feedback provided

[2] Content delivery in a lucid language

[3] Production of large number of ideas

[4] Theme based interaction among participants

Correct Answer: 2

Q.11) A research paper evaluated by other experts cither for publication or presentation at a conference is considered to have undergone:

[1] Peer Review

[2] Public Review

[3] Private Review

[4] Research Review

Correct Answer: 1

Q.12) When knowledge becomes replicable and verifiable, it is then called

[1] Humanistic

[2] Impressionistic

[3] Scientific

[4] Subjective

Correct Answer: 3

Q.13) Which of the following are the criteria of a successful interviewer?

A. Ethical

B. Open Minded

C. Gentle and Sensitive

D. Balanced

E. Rigid and Harsh in comments.

[1] ABCD

[2] BCDE

[3] ACDE

[4] ABDE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.14) Which of the following are ethical problems in research?

A Plagiarism

B. Coercion

C. Breach of confidentiality

D. Beneficence

E. Fidelity

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.15) Statement I: For open-ended questions, respondents can produce their own answers without any restriction of length.

Statement II: The memory phenomenon of telescoping is not an issue in survey research.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are. incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Correct Answer: 3

Q.16) The preface to a book is an example of:

[1] Convoluted communication

[2] Ritualistic communication

[3] Informal communication

[4] Feed forward communication

Correct Answer: 4

Q.17) A message beneath a message is often referred to as:

[1] Lower text

[2] Critical text

[3] Appended text

[4] Sub-text

Correct Answer: 4

Q.18) What precautions are necessary in the context of online information?

A. Discussion groups information is not amenable to checking.

B. There is no need to compare the information given by different websites.

C. Check the home page or the ‘About us’ section of the concerned website.

D. Do not trust the information without date.

E. Do not always trust the institution that owns the website.

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] CDA

Correct Answer: 3

Q.19) Statement I: In the transmission model of communication, the emphasis is not on the process of communicating.

Statement II: On the other hand, the symbolic model does not focus on the process of exchange of information.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.20) Match the column:

A. Natural Code

B. Technical Code

C. Ideological Code

D. Aesthetic Code

I. Reflection of mass or collective perception

II. Appreciation of cultural artifacts

III. Reflects the socio-cultural world

IV. Operational modes of media

[1] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

[2] A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

[3] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

[4] A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Correct Answer: 3

Q.21) A man starts working from his home. He walks 20 meters in the west direction, then turns right and walks 30 meters. Thereafter he walks 10 meters in the east direction. Find the aerial distance between the end point and the starting point.

[1] 10 √10m

[2] 100 √10m

[3] 10 √5m

[4] 5 √10m

Correct Answer: 1

Q.22) A is the son of B but B is not the father of A. How is B related to A?

[1] Grandmother

[2] Grandfather

[3] Mother

[4] Uncle

Correct Answer: 3

Q.23) In a forest there are some Tigers and Peacocks. The total number of heads is 90 and the total number of legs is 240. Find the total number of Tigers and total number of Peacocks in the forest i.e. (Tigers, Peacocks)

[1] (35,55)

[2] (45,45)

[3] (40, 50)

[4] (30, 60)

Correct Answer: 4

Q.24) What number should replace question mark (?) in the series given below?

125,129,120, 136, 111, 147, ?

[1] 183

[2] 258

[3] 196

[4] 98

Correct Answer: 4

Q.25) If in a certain coding language, A=26, G=20, GO=32, and SOME = 56, then the value of COME will be equal to____.

[1] 60

[2] 72

[3] 48

[4] 36

Correct Answer: 2

Q.26) Which logical fallacy is exemplified in the following statement – “No one can criticize the Freudian psychoanalysis unless the one who criticizes himself has been psychoanalysed”.

[1] Ad Hominem

[2] Appeal to authority

[3] Appeal to Ignorance

[4] Equivocation

Correct Answer: 1

Q.27) Which of the following propositions is logically equivalent to the proposition – “All frogs are amphibians™

[1] No amphibians are non-frogs.

[2] No frogs are non-amphibians.

[3] Some amphibians are frogs.

[4] Some amphibians are not frogs.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.28) If the proposition ‘some fishes are not amphibians’ is given as false then which of the following propositions can be immediately inferred to be true ?

A. No amphibians are fishes.

B. All fishes are amphibians.

C. No fishes are amphibians.

D. Some fishes are amphibians.

[1] AC

[2] CD

[3] BD

[4] D

Correct Answer: 3

Q.29) Which of the following propositions are so related that they cannot both be true, although they may both be false?

A. Al frogs are amphibians.

B. Some frogs are amphibians.

C. Some frogs are not amphibians.

D. No frogs are amphibians.

[1] AC

[2] CD

[3] BC

[4] AD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.30) Which of the following arguments is an example of the fallacy of a sadharana (narrow middle term) according to Nyaya (classical Indian school of Logic)?

[1] Sound is non-eternal because it is produced.

[2] Sound is eternal because it is audible.

[3] Sound is eternal because it is produced.

[4] Sound is quality because it is visible.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.31) If one MegaByte is equal to 2^20 Bytes of computer data storage, then 2048 TeraBytes is equal to _____ bits of data storage. —

[1] 2^51

[2] 2^44

[3] 2^54

[4] 2^57

Correct Answer: 3

Q.32) Which of the following best deseribes Web 2.0?

[1] Static websites

[2] Intelligent websites

[3] Social media and user-generated web content

[4] Hypertext mark-up language

Correct Answer: 3

Q.33) Statement I: Video cards and sound cards are typical examples of computer software.

Statement II: Examples of software utilities include anti-virus software, anti-spyware software and screen savers.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.34) Which of the following statements are true ?

A. Hypertext links in the WWW are designed to be unidirectional, which means that the destination of a

link may be moved or deleted without the source being notified, resulting in broken links.

B. The Google scarch engine algorithm is secret, so the gencral public does not know how the results of a search are being ranked when presented to a user.

C. Web search engines collect personal data and use that data to target users with customized advertising.

[1] AB

[2] AC

[3] BC

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 4

Q.35) Match the column:

A. JPEG

B. MIDI

C. MP3 format

D. MP4 format

I. Standard adopted by the electronic music industry for controlling devices such as synthesizers and sound cards.

II. This format allows the storage of multimedia files rather than just sound.

III. File compression format designed to make photo files smaller in size for storage and for transmission

IV. Compression system for music which does not noticeably affect the quality of the sounds

[1] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[2] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[3] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[4] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

Correct Answer: 1

Q.36) Non-point sources of water pollution are:

A. from specific location

B. diffuse

C. episodic

D. identifiable

E. difficult to monitor

[1] BCE

[2] ABC

[3] BCD

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.37) Which of the following are biofuels?

A. Gasoline

B. Methanol

C. Methane

D. Ethanol

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] BD

[4] AD

Correct Answer: 3

Q.38) Statement I: International Solar Alliance’s present post of President is held by India.

Statement II: The United States of America is not a member of International Solar Alliance.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 3

Q.39) Statement I: United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC) was framed during Kyoto Protocol, 1997.

Statement II: Kyoto Protocol set up different limits of carbon emissions for individual nations, depending on their output before 1990.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.40) Match List I with List II

LIST-I: Pollutant

A. Lead

B. Mercury

C. Benzene

D. Cadmium

LIST-II: Source

I. Coal combustion

II. Batteries

III. Paint

IV. Petrol

LEAD METAL

[1] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[2] A-III B-I C-IID-IV

[3] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[4] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

Correct Answer: 1

Q.41) Which of the following are the main focus areas of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA)?

A. Holistic development of rural clusters

B. Reorient the academic curricula and research programmes in Higher Education Institutions to align them with development of local community.

C. Enable effective intervention at the field level

D. Inculcate the moral values.

[1] ABC

[2] BD

[3] AC

[4] ABCD

Correct Answer: 1

Q.42) Which of the following are the Central Universities of India?

A Nagaland University, Nagaland

B. Acharya Nagarjuna University, Andhra Pradesh

C. Sikkim University, Sikkim

D. Manipur University, Manipur

E. Guwahati University, Assam

[1] BDE

[2] ACD

[3] ABCE

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.43) Statement I: University Grants Commission (UGC) became a statutory organization of the Government of India by an act of Parliament in 1956.

Statement II: National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is an autonomous organization set up in 1961 by the Government of India.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II s incorrect.

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.44) During Colonial period veterinary colleges were opened in:

A. Lahore in 1832

B. Bombay in 1882

C. Calcutta in 1843

D. Delhi in 1899.

[1] ABCD

[2] AB

[3] AD

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 4

Q.45-49)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

Aware of the high stakes involved in seizing control over the Indus for navigation, the British persuaded two Sindh amirs, Rustam Khan, the Amir of Khanpur and Murad Ali of Hyderabad, to enter into a one-sided treaty and as proxies to throw the Indus open to the British Military and political penctration. Under the treaty, signed reluctantly by the Sindh amirs, the British obtained the right to take the final decision regarding taxation duties on goods passing through the Indus to the Arabian Sea. This was a variation of a gun-boat diplomacy with which the advancing British seized the veto in their hands to control the entire trade flow from Central Asia to Sindh and thereby the right to manipulate the economies of the regions and the states, including that of Ranjit Singh whose removal was not on their agenda.

The next step was to coerce Ranjit Singh to sign the treaty, opening Sutlej to commerce as well. The British agent, Captain, Wade, told the Maharaja that the expansion of trade in his (the Maharaja’s) dominions would result only after singing the treaty. But the British agencies had disrupted the economy of the Sikh state by imposing heavy toll of Rs. 570 on the boats carrying large loads. This included the pashmina shawl output from 20,000 looms that were operating in Kashmir. The shawls were exported mainly to the European market, especially France, where they posed stiff competition to woollen manufacturers from Britain.

Q.45) Statement-I: The Pashmina shawls were quite popular in Europe.

Statement-II: The British made it casy for Kashmiri manufacturers to export the Pashmina shawls to Europe.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are. incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Correct Answer: 3

Q.46) Assertion A : The British wanted Ranjit Singh to sign the treaty.

Reason R: The British wanted to control the trade through the Indus.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

[2] Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

[3] A is true but R is false.

[4] A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.47) Who were persuaded by the British to enter into a treaty with them?

A. Rustam Khan

B. Murad Ali

C. Ranjit Singh

[1] AB

[2] BC

[3] AC

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 1

Q.48) Statement I: The Sindh amirs were quite pleased and willing to sign the treaty with the British.

Statement II: Controlling the navigation through the Indus was high on the British agenda.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.49) Assertion-A : The British wanted to control the navigation routes through the rivers.

Reason R: Rivers were used for trading goods and the British found it lucrative to make profit by controlling the trade.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

[2] Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

[3] Ais true but R is false.

[4] Ais false but R is true.

Correct Answer: 1

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