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November 2021: Paper 1 (Conducted on 29th Nov 2021 : Morning Shift)

Q.1-5)

Q.1) Which train has minimum per km cost?

[1] 1001

[2] 1003

[3] 1004

[4] 1005

Correct Answer: 2

Q.2) Which train will take maximum time to reach the destination?

[1] 1001

[2] 1003

[3] 1004

[4] 1005

Correct Answer: 3

Q.3) Which train has minimum number of vacant seats?

[1] 1001

[2] 1002

[3] 1003

[4] 1005

Correct Answer: 4

Q.4) What is the average of the number of vacant seats for all trains?

[1] 302

[2] 304

[3] 306

[4] 308

Correct Answer: 2

Q.5) What is the time difference between the train which takes the maximum duration and the train which takes the minimum duration?

[1] 2.78

[2] 2.64

[3] 2.86

[4] 2.68

Correct Answer: 3

Q.6) The name of the MOOC platform developed by IIT Kanpur is

[1] SWAYAM

[2] Coursera

[3] mooKIT

[4] MOOCK

Correct Answer: 3

Q.7) In the role of a test constructor, how should a teacher proceed?

A. Prepare test items that match the instructional objectives

B. List the major course or unit objectives

C. Prepare a table of specifications

D. Specify the course or unit content

E. Discard unrealistic objectives

[1] A, B, C, D, E

[2] B, E, D, C, A

[3] C, A, E, D, B

[4] D, B, E, C, A

Correct Answer: 4

Q.8) Statement I: The brain continues to develop throughout childhood and adolescence.

Statement II: The logical and goal-directed actions begin in the sensorimotor period.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

Correct Answer: 3

Q.9) An undergraduate degree with Honors in a discipline may be awarded if a student completes

A. 14 core papers in that discipline

B. 2 Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses

C. 2 Research paper published in any UGC CARE listed journal

D. Minimum 2 Skill Enhancement courses

E. 4 papers each from a list of discipline specific elective and generic elective papers

[1] A, B, C and D only

[2] A, B, D and E only

[3] B, C, D and E only

[4] A, C, D and E only

Correct Answer: 2

Q.10) Match the column:

A. Shodhganga

B. Swayam Prabha

C. Vidwan

D. Sakshat

I. expert database + researcher network

II. thesis database

III. online content delivery platform

IV. DTH education channel

[1] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[2] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[3] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

[4] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 1

Q.11) The exercise of reviewing the relevant literature is most closely related for which one of the following?

[1] Formulating research problems

[2] In drawing a sample for the study

[3] For analyzing quantitative data

[4] Generalization of the finding

Correct Answer: 1

Q.12) Which among the following is an example of descriptive statistic?

[1] Chi-square

[2] Regression

[3] Standard deviation

[4] t-statistic

Correct Answer: 3

Q.13) Which among the following are the source of threat to external validity?

A. Sample characteristics

B. Novelty/uniqueness of stimulus

C. Improper manipulation of LV.

D. Lack of motivation on the part of the participants

E. Reactivity of the assessments

[1] A, B and D only

[2] B, D and E only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] A, B and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.14) Statement I: Sample sizes for qualitative research vary by technique but are generally small

Statement II: Qualitative research involves non-probability sampling.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement l are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I s false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.15) Assertion A: Student’s t-statistic is a robust statistic.

Reason R: Student’s t-statistic can yield accurate analysis of data, even if some of the assumptions of parametric statistics are violated.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.16) In communication, a shrug of shoulders indicates-

[1] Responsibility

[2] Honesty

[3] Interest

[4] Indifference

Correct Answer: 4

Q.17) Which one of the following is a strategy to overcome communication barriers?

[1] Setting of ground rules

[2] Aggression

[3] Advance technology provision

[4] Use of jargon

Correct Answer: 1

Q.18) The communication between two persons through letters is an instance of:

[1] Intrapersonal verbal communication

[2] Intrapersonal nonverbal communication

[3] Interpersonal verbal communication

[4] Interpersonal nonverbal communication

Correct Answer: 3

Q.19) Which one of the following is an example of form of New Media?

[1] Newspapers

[2] TV

[3] Radio

[4] Instagram

Correct Answer: 4

Q.20) Assertion A: In classroom communication, Socratic questioning is one of the effective strategies to promote understanding.

Reason R: Feedback through student evaluation of teachers enhances the quality of classroom communication.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.21) Statement I: At 8.55% rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 12 years.

Statement Il: In 3 years Rs 1000 will become Rs 1331 at compound interest rate of 10% per annum.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.22) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The sum of three consecutive multiples of 3 is 72. The largest number is 27.

B. A number when multiplied by 13 is increased by 180. The number is 13.

C. The average of first 20 multiples of 7 is 73.5.

[1] A and B only

[2] B and C only

[3] A and C only

[4] A only

Correct Answer: 3

Q.23) When a sum of money was distributed to 12 boys instead of 16 boys, each boy got Rs 40 more. What was the sum?

[1] 1290

[2] 1920

[3] 480

[4] 840

Correct Answer: 2

Q.24) The ages of Lokendra and Dharmendra are in the ratio 6:5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 4 years?

[1] 8:7

[2] 7:8

[3] 7:6

[4] 9:7

Correct Answer: 3

Q.25) In the series 9, 18, 36, — what will be 12th term?

[1] 18556

[2] 18652

[3] 18232

[4] 18432

Correct Answer: 4

Q.26) Assertion A: Denotation cannot be used to define words that have an empty extension

Reason R: Although connotation determines denotation, denotation does not determine connotation

[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is correct but R is not correct

[4] A is not correct but R is correct

Correct Answer: 2

Q.27) Identify the fallacy committed in the argument

All cats are animals.

All dogs are animals.

Therefore, all dogs are cats.

[1] Fallacy of Four Terms

[2] Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term

[3] Fallacy of the Exclusive Premises

[4] Existential Fallacy

Correct Answer: 2

Q.28) “American Indians are disappearing.

That man is an American Indian.

Therefore, that man is disappearing.”

[1] Fallacy of Composition

[2] Fallacy of Division

[3] Fallacy of Accident

[4] Fallacy of Converse Accident

Correct Answer: 2

Q.29) The condition that there should be an absence of contradiction in the relation of the objects denoted in the combination of words, for the sentence to be significant is known as which one of the following?

[1] Akarksa

[2] Yogyata

[3] Sannidhi

[4] Tatparya

Correct Answer: 2

Q.30) Statement I: A vyapti between two terms of equal extension is called Samavyapti.

Statement II: The relation between fire and smoke is that of Samavyapti.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.31) The World Wide Web (www) is-

[1] A massive network of networks which are made up of various computers

[2] The Internet makes use of TCP/IP protocol

[3] A company which allows a user to connect to the Internet

[4] A collection of multimedia web pages and other documents which are stored on websites

Correct Answer: 4

Q.32) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is

[1] Transferring file from one computer to another

[2] A text-based protocol used when sending emails

[3] Protocol used to find an IP address

[4] Fetching an HTML document from a web server

Correct Answer: 4

Q.33) Statement I: Phishing is a program code that can replicate itself with the intention of deleting files.

Statement II: Phishing can be filtered but at the Internet Service Provider’s (ISP) level.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il s true

Correct Answer: 4

Q.34) Which of the following statements regarding Intranets are correct?

A. The Intranet can be accessed from anywhere by anyone

B. The Intranet has public access

C. They are more secure than internet

D. In Intranet, it is possible to control external links

[1] A, B and C only

[2] C and D only

[3] A, C and D only

[4] B and C only

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Match the column:

A. MB (megabyte)

B. GB (gigabyte)

C. TB (terabyte)

D. PB (petabyte)

I. 2^30

II. 2^50

III. 2^20

IV. 2^40

[1] A-II B-III C-I D-IV

[2] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[3] A-III B-II C-I D-IV

[4] A-II B-I C-III D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.36) Assertion A: The in-situ passive soil remediation process is the easiest to implement and the least expensive

Reason R: It relies upon several natural processes to destroy the contaminants

[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is correct but R is not correct

[4] A is not correct but R is correct

Correct Answer: 1

Q.37) Dewatering of sewage sludge can be achieved by

A. Gravity thickening

B. Mechanical stirring

C. Osmosis

D. Floatation

E. Screening

[1] A, B and D only

[2] B, C and E only

[3] A, C and D only

[4] C, D and E only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.38) Match the column:

A. Water prevention and control act

B. Air prevention and control act

C. Environment Protection Act

D. The Factories Amendment Act

I. 1986

II. 1974

III. 1987

IV. 1981

[1] A-II B-IV C-III D-I

[2] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[3] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[4] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.39) Which one of the following isotopes of Uranium is fissile material and can be used for nuclear reactions?

[1] U-234

[2] U-235

[3] U-236

[4] U-238

Correct Answer: 2

Q.40) Rain is termed as acid rain when its pH value is

[1] 1-3

[2] Less than 5.6

[3] 5.6-7.0

[4] More than 7

Correct Answer: 2

Q.41) Who chaired the first committee constituted by Government of India on Women’s education after independence?

[1] Dr. Radhakrishnan

[2] Dr. Durga bai Deshmukh

[3] Hansa Mehta

[4] Kamala Chaudhary

Correct Answer: 2

Q.42) Disruptive technologies in education mean

[1] New technologies that completely change the way things are done in education

[2] Prevention of technology in education

[3] Use of Artificial Intelligence

[4] Obsolete technology

Correct Answer: 1

Q.43) Statement I: “The improvement of Secondary Education was an essential foundation for the improvement of Secondary Education”, was the view held by the Calcutta University Commission

Statement II: The Calcutta University Commission recommended the use of mother tongue in the intermediate colleges for teaching all the subjects

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

Correct Answer: 2

Q.44) The presence of which of the following points poses challenge for higher education system as per NEP-2020?

A. Large affiliating universities

B. Ineffective regulatory system

C. Limited teacher and institutional autonomy

D. Emphasis on research

E. Efficient merit based career management and progression of faculty members

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] A, D and E only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.45) Match the column:

A. Samkhya

B. Nyaya

C. Vaisheshika

D. Purvamimansa

I. Gautam

II. Kanada

III. Kapila

IV. Jamni

[1] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[2] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[3] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[4] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

Correct Answer: 3

Q.46-50)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

Throughout history, people have turned to mythology, folklore and religion for explanations of life’s origins, and to this day, there are many who firmly believe what has been written in religious books and passed down from generation to generation. With the advent of the Age of Reason in the 18t century and scientific advances in the 19th century, however, the quest for deeper knowledge could be satisfied by digging for empirical evidence and putting it to empirical test.

In 1865, Gregor Mendel, an Austrian monk who had been experimenting for eight years with garden peas, announced to the scientific community that specific characteristics, or traits, were transmitted from parent to offspring in an organized and predictable manner. Along with Charles Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection and evolution, as stated in his 1859 publication, ‘On the Origin of Species’. Mendel’s work set the stage for the science of genetics to become the prominent explanation of where life comes from. With the help of improved microscopes, scientists discovered the existence and structure of cells containing chromosomes. In the early 1900s, experiments with fruit flies revealed that chromosomes located in the cell’s nucleus were made of genes. The Drosophila, commonly called fruit fly, was the first living organism to be genetically mapped. In 1944, Oswald Avery identified genes in bacteria as genetic messengers made of DNA. In 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick discovered the double-helix structure of DNA, for which they received the Nobel Prize nine years later. With each ground breaking discovery, molecular biologists were able to form an even clearer picture of the mechanics of life. To crack the code of life, prominent scientists proposed compiling a comprehensive genetic map of a human being.

Q.46) What is the meaning of ‘empirical evidence’?

[1] based on observation and capable of being verified

[2] based on received knowledge

[3] based on knowledge from historical empires

[4] based on mythology and folklore

Correct Answer: 1

Q.47) According to the author, what were the initial sources of information for understanding the beginning of life?

[1] Scientific discoveries

[2] Folk knowledge and scriptures

[3] Imaginative literature

[4] Discoveries of Mendel and Darwin

Correct Answer: 2