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December 2021: Paper 1 (Conducted on 26th Dec 2021 : Evening Shift)

Q.1-4)

Q.1) Which country has the highest number of female athletes during 2016 to 2020?

[1] A

[2] B

[3] C

[4] D

Correct Answer: 1

Q.2) What is the percentage of female athletes in 2017?

[1] 37%

[2] 38%

[3] 39%

[4] 40%

Correct Answer: 3

Q.3) Find out the difference between average male athletes in 2016 and average male athletes in 2017.

[1] 0.6

[2] 0.7

[3] 0.8

[4] 0.9

Correct Answer: 2

Q.4) Which country has the minimum number of male athletes during 2016 to 2020?

[1] A

[2] B

[3] C

[4] D

Correct Answer: 3

Q.5) What is the type of graphic organiser or mind tool used for knowledge organisation that can help learners interpret, represent, and organise information by making a graphic in cooperation with others?

[1] Concept mapping

[2] Hyper media

[3] Gestural prompts

[4] Divergent question

Correct Answer: 1

Q.6) What is the name of the process in which the listener provides feedback to the speaker about the message heard and the emotion conveyed and lets the speaker realize how he or she is being understood and respected?

[1] Active responding

[2] Active listening

[3] Centering behaviour

[4] Adaptive teaching

Correct Answer: 2

Q.7) Match the column:

A. CEC

B. IGNOU

C. NIOS

D. NITTTR

I. Out of school students

II. Undergraduate education

III. Teacher Training Programme

IV. School education

[1] A-III B-II C-I D-IV

[2] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[3] A-I B-IV C-II D-I

[4] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

Correct Answer: 2

Q.8) Statement I: In a learning organisation, the learning of teachers, their professional development, and the learning of children, their education, are inevitably complementary and mutually reinforcing.

Statement II: Intrapersonal intelligence does not involve understanding the inner world of emotions and thoughts, and developing the ability to control and consciously work with them.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: 3

Q.9) Which among the following constitute personal competence?

A. Empath

B. Motivation

C. Social skills

D. Self awareness

E. Self regulation

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] B, D and E only

[4] C, D and E only

Correct Answer: 3

Q.10) The form of asking mainly closed-ended questions that has been used in connection with the examination of people’s normative standards is known as

[1] Abductive technique

[2] Vignette technique

[3] Hermeneutics technique

[4] Outlier technique

Correct Answer: 2

Q.11) What type of validity is this in which the researcher is encouraged to deduce hypotheses from a theory that is relevant to the concept?

[1] Construct validity

[2] Concurrent validity

[3] Face validity

[4] Convergent validity

Correct Answer: 1

Q.12) Statement I: Open coding is achieved by linking codes to contacts to consequences to patterns of interaction and to causes.

Statement II: Axial coding is the process of breaking down, examining, comparing, conceptualising, and categorising data.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

Correct Answer: 2

Q.13) Match the column:

A. Selective coding

B. Initial coding

C. Focused coding

D. Theoretical coding

I. To discover the most significant or frequent initial code

makes the most analytical sense.

II. The procedure of selecting the core category, Systematically relating it to other categories, validating their relationships, and filing in categories that need Further refinement and development

III. It specifies possible relationships between categories,

are integrative

IV. Comparing data with data, staying close and remain open to exploring what’s happening in data, construct and keep the code short, simple, precise and active.

[1] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[2] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

[3] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

[4] A-III B-II C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 1

Q.14) There are various steps for creating survey forms using ICT application like Google Forms.

A. Select question type and create

B. Give name to survey form and save

C. Make questions mandatory/keep optional

D. Share with respondents

E. Configure the settings

[1] B, D, E, C, A

[2] C, D, A, B, E

[3] A, C, B, E, D

[4] D, B, C, A, E

Correct Answer: 3

Q.15) In a classroom context, when innumerable meaningful messages emanate from a finite number of linguistic signals, it is called

[1] Semanticism

[2] Cognition

[3] Productivity

[4] Information processing

Correct Answer: 3

Q.16) The advantages of diagonal communication are:

A. Resistance

B. Sidetracking

C. Anomie

D. Morale boosting

E. Co-ordination

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] B, D and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.17) Statement I: Communication reflects the dimension of power.

Statement II: Power and unethical communication are strongly inter-related.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.18) Identify the sequence of cultural barriers in communication as listed by experts:

A. Methods of conflict resolution

B. Difference in tolerance of conflicts

C. Semantic

D. Tone difference

E. Word connotation

[1] C, E, D, B, A

[2] D, B, C, A, E

[3] E, A, B, C, D

[4] A, C, E, D, B

Correct Answer: 1

Q.19) Match the column:

A. Encoding-decoding

B. Intentionalist

C. Perspective taking

D. Dialogism

I. Realistic imagination of other’s views

II. Participants are autonomous information processors

III. Conceiving communication as a process that uses language

IV. Purposeful use of language

[1] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[2] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[3] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[4] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.20) What number comes next in this sequence?

19648, 1728, 112, ?

[1] 2

[2] 12

[3] 22

[4] 62

Correct Answer: 1

Q.21) A, Band C share a certain sum of money among themselves. A gets 35%, B gets Rs.1500 and C gets 1/20. How much is the original sum of money?

[1] Rs. 1500

[2] Rs. 2000

[3] Rs. 1250

[4] Rs. 2500

Correct Answer: 4

Q.22) Senthil said, “This lady is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” Senthil is the only son of his mother and has no sister. Who is Senthil to the lady?

[1] Husband

[2] Father-in-law

[3] Daughter-in-law

[4] Brother

Correct Answer: 2

Q.23) Statement I: If two numbers divided by a third number give the same remainder, their difference is exactly divisible by

that number.

Statement II: Least common multiple of two or more given numbers is the largest number which is exactly divisible by each of them.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.24) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. A bullet covers 55 meters in 2 seconds. Its speed is 99 km/hr

B. A can complete a work in 10 days. In 5 days, he can complete 1/5 fraction of the work

C. Walking at 3/4 of his usual speed, a girl is late by 2 1/2 hours. Her usual time is 7 1/2 hours.

[1] A C

[2] A B

[3] B C

[4] C

Correct Answer: 1

Q.25) Match the column:

Proposition in Square of Opposition

A. If ‘A’ is false

B. If ‘E’ is false

C. If ‘I’ is false

D. If ‘O’ is false

Resultant proposition

I. ‘E’ is false; ‘I’ is true

II. ‘A’ is true; ‘E’ is true

III. ‘A’ and ‘O’ are undetermined

IV. ‘E’ and ‘I’ are undetermined

[1] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[2] A-III B-II C-I D-IV

[3] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[4] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

Correct Answer: 1

Q.26) When a middle term does not go further than producing a state of mental oscillation between two opposite views, the case is known as

[1] Fallacy of Viruddha (contradictory middie)

[2] Fallacy of Asiddha (unproved middle)

[3] Fallacy of Prakaranasam (counteracted middle)

[4] Fallacy of Savyabhichara (irregular middle)

Correct Answer: 3

Q.27) Name the fallacy committed in-

“Some good actors are not strong men.

Al professional wrestlers are strong men.

Therefore, All professional wrestlers are good actors.”

[1] Illicit major

[2] Illicit minor

[3] Undistributed middle

[4] Affirmative conclusion from Negative Premises

Correct Answer: 4

Q.28) Which of the following is taken to mean inference by elimination, in which the inferred character is the residuum of a process of elimination that excludes other characters?

[1] Purvavat Anumana

[2] Sheshavat Anumana

[3] Samanyatodrshta

[4] Paksal

Correct Answer: 2

Q.29) Which of the following pertains to fallacy of ambiguity?

[1] Equivocation

[2] The straw man

[3] Hasty generalisation

[4] The red herring

Correct Answer: 1

Q.30) What is a Utility program?

[1] It translates data into a format understood by the device

[2] It permits the sharing and exchange of data

[3] It makes copies of files on another storage device

[4] It is a part of the operating system which carries out defragmentation o disk formatting

Correct Answer: 4

Q.31) Match the column:

A. Network System

B. Operating System

C. Memory

D. Communication

I. Email

II. Firewall

III. Mac

IV. ROM

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[3] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

Correct Answer: 3

Q.32) Read the following statement and choose the CORRECT code:

A. Radio frequency identification systems use radio waves to read and capture information

B. MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) characters are easy to forge and cannot be written over

C. OMR (Optical Mark Recognition) reads marks written in pencil or pen in specific places on a term.

D. Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scans the text and converts it into a computer-readable format

E. Barcodes can be forged or damaged

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C, D and E only

[3] A, C and E only

[4] A, C, D and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.33) Statement I: Every time a device connects to a network, it is given an IP (Internet Protocol) address.

Statement II: Devices that never disconnect retain the same IP address.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.34) Match the column:

A. Measurement application

B. Control application

C. Modelling application

D. Communication application

I. Automatic oven

II. Website

III. Weather station

IV. Car crash simulator

[1] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[2] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[3] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[4] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Which of the following are the missions of the National Action Plan on Climate Change?

A. National Solar Mission

B. Green Indian Mission

C. Western Ghat Development Mission

D. National Water Mission

E. Air Pollution Mitigation Mission

[1] A, B and D only

[2] A, B, D and E only

[3] A, B and E only

[4] A, C, D and E only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.36) Nationally Determined Contributions of European Union (EU) countries aim at a reduction in Green House Gas emissions by the year 2030 (in the reference to 1990 levels) to the extent of

[1] 40%

[2] 50%

[3] 35%

[4] 55%

Correct Answer: 1

Q.37) Which of the following contaminants in water can cause adverse human effects such as mental disturbance and impairment of speech, hearing and vision?

[1] Arsenic

[2] Methyl mercury

[3] Lead

[4] Nickel and Chromium

Correct Answer: 2

Q.38) Identify the correct sequence of countries that are the world’s leading geothermal power (in MW) producers.

A. New Zealand

B. Iceland

C. UsA

D. Indonesia

[1] C > A > B > D

[2] A > C > B > D

[3] D > C > A > B

[4] C > D > A > B

Correct Answer: 4

Q.39) Match the column:

A. Montreal Protocol

B. Rio Summit

C. Kyoto protcol

D. Paris agreement

I. environment and sustainable development

II. reduce the emission of Green House Gases

III. Climate change mitigation and adaptation

IV. Ozone depletion

[1] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[3] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[4] A-IV B-II C-I D-III

Correct Answer: 3

Q.40) Association of Indian Universities (AIU) is established with an objective to:

A. Maintain quality and standards of universities

B. Serve as an Inter-University Organisation

C. To facilitate communication, co-ordination and mutual consultation amongst universities

D. To recognise universities to run different cources

E. To act as a liaism between the universities and the governments.

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and E only

[3] B, C and D only

[4] A, B, C and D only

Correct Answer: 2

Q.41) Which of the following is NOT a parameter for ranking according to NIRF?

[1] Teaching, Learning and Resources

[2] Campus Placement

[3] Research and Professional practice

[4] Outreach and inclusivity

Correct Answer: 2

Q.42) SWAYAM is initiated by Govt of India with an objective to-

A. Ensure best quality content produced and delivered

B. Provide quality materials with nominal cost

C. Teach all classes from class-IX to PG

D. Assess students continuously and grant degrees

E. Accessed by anyone, anywhere at anytime

[1] A, C and D only

[2] A, C and E only

[3] A, B and C only

[4] B, C and D only

Correct Answer: 2

Q.43) Match the column:

A. The Education Commission

B. National policy on education

C. University education commission

D. National Knowledge Commission

I. 2009

II. 1964-66

III. 1986

IV. 1948-49

[1] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

[2] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[3] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.44) The statutory body responsible for maintaining quality and standard of teacher education in the country is:

[1] AICTE

[2] NCTE

[3] NCERT

[4] UGC

Correct Answer: 2

Q.45-49)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

Several organisational factors that cause stress-particularly task and role demands-are controlled by management and thus can be modified or changed. Strategies to consider include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal-setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organisational communication, employee sabbticals, and corporate wellness programmes. Certain jobs are more stressful than others, but, as we have seen, individuals differ in their response to stressful situations. We know individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress. Selection and placement decisions should take these facts into consideration. Obiviously, management should not restrict hiring to only experienced individuals with an internal locus, but such individuals may adapt better to high stress jobs more effectively . Similarly, training can increase an individuals self- efficacy and thus lessen job strain. Individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals. Goals can reduce stress as well as provide motivation. Emloyee who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress, because they are more likely to perceive stress as challenge rather than a hindrance. Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectation. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity and stress. Predesigning job to give emloyee more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and less dependence on others.

Q.45) Which of the following form the management strategy for reducing organisational stress factor?

(A) Achievable goals

(B) Employee wellness

(D) Top-down communication

[1] A and B

[2] B and C

[3] C and D

[4] A and D

Correct Answer: 1

Q.46) What type of people are mare prone to stress than others in the organisation?

[1] Individuals with job experience

[2] People with outside position of control