UGC NET Paper 1 December 2021 (Conducted on 26th December 2021 : Morning Shift)
October 18, 2022 2025-08-18 16:37UGC NET Paper 1 December 2021 (Conducted on 26th December 2021 : Morning Shift)
December 2021: Paper 1 (Conducted on 26th Dec 2021 : Morning Shift)
Q.1-5)
Q.1) In which year, was there the highest student enrollment?
[1] 2019
[2] 2017
[3] 2020
[4] 2016
Correct Answer: 2
Q.2) What is the difference between average vacant seats in BTech and average vacant seats in MTech during 2016-20.
[1] 4.2
[2] 4.3
[3] 4.4
[4] 4.1
Correct Answer: 3
Q.3) Which year has highest number of vacant seats?
[1] 2019
[2] 2020
[3] 2018
[4] 2017
Correct Answer: 3
Q.4) Which course has minimum number of total vacant seats during 2016 to 2020?
[1] B.Tech
[2] MCA
[3] M.Tech
[4] M.Phil
Correct Answer: 4
Q.5) What is the difference between average enrollment in 2016 and average enrollment in 2017?
[1] 3.0
[2] 3.3
[3] 3.4
[4] 3.2
Correct Answer: 1
Q.6) Who among the following is the national coordinator for engineering courses to be launched on SWAYAM platform?
[1] AICTE
[2] NCERT
[3] NPTEL
[4] UGC
Correct Answer: 3
Q.7) What is the name of the software application that facilitates building an early accessible bookmark warehouse that becomes searchable to members or the public?
[1] Social Bookmarking
[2] Database Management System
[3] Enterprise Resource Planning
[4] Reference Management Tool
Correct Answer: 1
Q.8) Statement I: Reliability refers to whether a test measures what it says it measures.
Statement II: Validity refers to whether a test consistently yields the same or similar scores.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement If are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct
Correct Answer: 2
Q.9) Metacognition comprises which of the following skills?
A. Planning
B. Developing
C. Monitoring
D. Costing
E. Evaluation
[1] A, B and C only
[2] A, C and E only
[3] B, D and E only
[4] A, D and E only
Correct Answer: 2
Q.10) Learning Strategy
A. Planning and focusing attention
B. Organising and remembering
C. Comprehension
D. Cognitive monitoring
Action Taken
I. Creating example
II. Self-questioning and self-testing
III. Setting goals and timetables
IV. Using mnemonics, imagery
[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV
[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I
[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II
[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III
Correct Answer: 3
Q.11) The kind of sample that is simply available to the researcher by virtue of its accessibility, is known as
[1] Quota sampling
[2] Snowball sampling
[3] Convenience sampling
[4] Web sampling
Correct Answer: 3
Q.12) Which among the following is the names for validity whereby researcher uses a future criterion measure, rather than a contemporary one?
[1] Convergent validity
[2] Predictive validity
[3] Construct validity
[4] Concurrent validity
Correct Answer: 2
Q.13) Statement I: If we are interested in the worldview of members of a certain social group, a qualitative research strategy that is sensitive to how participants interpret their social world may be preferable.
Statement II: If a researcher is interested in a topic on which little or no research has been done in the past, quantitative research may be easy to employ because there is little prior literature from which to draw leads.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct
Correct Answer: 3
Q.14) Match the column:
A. Sampling design
B. Statistical design
C. Observational design
D. Operational design
I. pre-planned design for analysis
II. structured or well thought out instruments for collection of data
III. advanced decision about operational procedures
IV. probability sampling design
[1] A-IV B-I C-II D-III
[2] A-I B-III C-IV D-II
[3] A-III B-II C-I D-IV
[4] A-II B-IV C-III D-I
Correct Answer: 1
Q.15) Statement I: In the ‘before-and-after without control’ design, a single test group or area is selected and the dependent variable is measured before the introduction of the treatment.
Statement II: In the ‘before-and-after with control’ design, two areas are selected but the dependent variable is not measured in both the areas for an identical time-period before the treatment.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct
Correct Answer: 3
Q.16) According to communication research findings, some amount of gossip is necessary for
[1] Pro-social motivation
[2] Prevention of distortion
[3] Extending communication range
[4] Relocation of emotional affiliations
Correct Answer: 1
Q.17) Which of the following are important in intercultural communication?
A. Valuelessness
B. Absence of respect
C. Power distance
D. Individualism
E. Gender roles
[1] A, B and C only
[2] B, C and D only
[3] C, D and E only
[4] A, B and E only
Correct Answer: 3
Q.18) Assertion A: Smiles and laughter should be avoided when messages are serious.
Reason R: Non-verbal cues are always contextual like verbal communication
[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
[3] A is true but R is false
[4] A is false but R is true
Q.19) Identify the sequence of human communication skills.
A. Public speaking
B. Group interaction
C. Relationship
D. Feed forward
E. Self-presentation
[1] B, D, E, C, A
[2] A, C, D, B, E
[3] C, E, A, D, B
[4] E, C, B, A, D
Correct Answer: 4
Q.20) Match the column:
A. Psychological barriers
B. Organisational
C. Personal
D. Semantic
I. use of technical language
II. poor retention
III. functional specialization
IV. fear of challenge to authority
[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV
[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I
[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II
[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III
Correct Answer: 2
Q.21) What number should replace the question mark?
7,8,9, 10, 12, 14, 16, 20, 21, 28, ?
[1] 27
[2] 36
[3] 32
[4] 29
Correct Answer: 1
Q.22) X is as much younger to Y as he is older to Z. If the sum of the ages of Y and Z is 36 years. What is the age of X?
[1] 16 Years
[2] 15 Years
[3] 18 Years
[4] 20 Years
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Q.23) Two persons are walking in the same direction at rates 3 km/hr and 6 km/hr. A train comes running from behind and passes them in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The speed of the train is
[1] 33 km/hr
[2] 22 km/hr
[3] 44 km/hr
[4] 35 km/hr
Correct Answer: 1
Q.24) Statement I: Between 4 and 5, the minute hand and hour hand of a clock coincide at 20 minutes past 4.
Statement II: Between 4 and 5, the minute hand and hour hand of a clock are at a right angle at 40 minutes past 4.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement l are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il i false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true
Correct Answer: 2
Q.25) Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. If A’s salary is 20% more than B, then B’s salary is 20% less than A.
B. By selling 28 pens, a man gains the selling price of 4 pens. The gain is 15%.
C. The average of N consecutive natural numbers starting from 1 is (N+1)/2.
[1] A, C
[2] B, C
[3] A, D
[4] C only
Correct Answer: 4
Q.26) Match the column:
Proposition in Square of Opposition
A. If ‘A’ is true
B. If ‘E’ is true
C. If ‘I’ is true
D. If ‘O’ is true
Resultant proposition
I. ‘I’ is false; ‘O’ is true
II. ‘E’ is false; ‘A’ is undetermined
III. ‘E’ and ‘I’ is undetermined
IV. ‘E’ is false; ‘I’ is true
[1] A-I B-III C-II D-IV
[2] A-II B-I C-III D-IV
[3] A-III B-II C-I D-IV
[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III
Correct Answer: 4
Q.27) When a middle term does not go further than producing a state of mental oscillation between two opposite views, the case is of
[1] Fallacy of Viruddha
[2] Fallacy of Prakaransama
[3] Fallacy of Asiddha
[4] Fallacy of Savyabhichara
Correct Answer: 2
Q.28) The Fallacy committed in the argument-
“All textbooks are books intended for careful study. Some reference books are books intended for careful study. Therefore, some reference books are textbooks.” is
[1] Illicit Major
[2] Illicit Minor
[3] Fallacy of four Terms
[4] Undistributed Middle
Correct Answer: 4
Q.29) In an illustration of inference that the ‘Sun moves, like other moving objects its position changes’ represents
[1] Purvavat Anumana
[2] Sesavat Anumana
[3] Samanyatodrsta
[4] Pakshta
Correct Answer: 3
Q.30) Pick the incorrect statement
[1] ‘Truth’ and ‘Falsehood’ may be predicated of propositions but never of arguments
[2] In the case of deductive argument, the technical terms ‘correct’ and ‘incorrect’ are used
[3] Inductive arguments are neither valid nor invalid but evaluated as better or worse
[4] The conclusion of a deductive argument follows from its premises necessarily
Correct Answer: 2
Q.31) What is Phishing?
[1] Sending data to a hacker
[2] Some-one sends legitimate-looking emails to users
[3] Search automatically for an item on the internet
[4] Checking the spelling of websites
Correct Answer: 2
Q.32) Statement I: If the sensor data is outside the acceptable range, then the microprocessor/computer will take action.
Statement II: Sensors in the control application only send data to the microprocessor/computer when something happens.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true
Correct Answer: 3
Q.33) Which of the following statements are correct?
A. A WLAN is a wide area network
B. A hub sends an incoming data packet to the correct device on a network
C. An IP address is assigned to a device at the manufacturing stage
D. A network Interface card is needed to allow a device to connect to a network
E. Routers inspect data packets received over the internet
[1] A and B only
[2] B and E only
[3] D and E only
[4] B, C and D only
Correct Answer: 3
Q.34) Match the column:
A. Input device
B. Output device
C. Pointing device
D. Sensor device
I. Traffic light simulator
II. Scanner
III. Speaker
IV. Trackerball
[1] A-II B-III C-IV D-I
[2] A-I B-II C-IV D-III
[3] A-III B-I C-IV D-II
[4] A-II B-IV C-III D-I
Correct Answer: 1
Q.35) What are Firewalls?
[1] Used for address translation in the Network Layer
[2] Used to store the Network Interface Card
[3] Used for Network congestion control
[4] Hardware or software that sits between a user’s computer and an external computer
Correct Answer: 4
Q.36) According to the Sustainable Development Report (2020), the top-ranked country on the basis of the SDG Index is
[1] Bhutan
[2] New Zealand
[3] Sweden
[4] United Kingdom
Correct Answer: 3
Q.37) Which one of the following waterborne diseases does not require direct contact with water but a host to spread?
[1] Cholera
[2] Malaria
[3] Trachoma
[4] Schistosomiasis
Correct Answer: 2
Q.38) Paris agreement entered into force when the instruments of ratification were deposited by at least 55 countries which accounted for, at least
[1] 50% of global CO; emissions
[2] 55% of global COz emissions
[3] 60% of global COz emissions
[4] 75% of global CO, emissions
Correct Answer: 2
Q.39) Biogas has a calorific value of about
[1] 5000 kcal per cubic meter
[2] 3000 kcal per cubic meter
[3] 2500 kcal per cubic meter
[4] 1800 kcal per cubic meter
Correct Answer: 1
Q.40) Under which of the following agreements was it decided to limit the increase in global average temperature to well below 2°C?
[1] Paris Agreement
[2] Kyoto Protocol
[3] Montreal Protocol
[4] Rio Summit
Correct Answer: 1
Q.41) Match the column:
A. state with the highest number of universities
B. state with the lowest number of universities
C. state with the highest GER in higher education
D. state with the lowest GER in higher education
I. Sikkim
II. Rajasthan
III. Bihar
IV. Mizoram
[1] A-I B-II C-IV D-III
[2] A-II B-IV C-III D-I
[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II
[4] A-II B-IV C-I D-III
Correct Answer: 4
Q.42) The oldest university in India was:
[1] Nalanda
[2] Takshashila
[3] Vikramshila
[4] Mithila
Correct Answer: 2
Q.43) Central Universities are:
A. established by the UGC
B. established by an act of the Parliament
C. established by the Department of Education, Government of India
D. funded by the Central government
E. Funded by the ‘Niti Ayog’
[1] A and D only
[2] C and E only
[3] B and D only
[4] B and E only
Correct Answer: 3
Q.44) Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education calculated as:
[1] (Number of enrolments in higher education / total population in the age group of 18-23) x 100
[2] (Number of enrolments in higher education / total population in the age group of 18-23)
[3] (Number of enrolments in higher education in the age group 18-23 / total population in the age group of 18-23)
[4] (Number of enrolments in higher education in the age group 18-23 / total population in the age group of 18-23) x 100
Correct Answer: 1
Q.45) Choice-based credit system of index graduate level includes:
A. Core Course
B. Elective Course
C. Ability Enhancement Course
D. Environment Education Course
E. English Communication Course
[1] A, B and C only
[2] B, C and D only
[3] C, D and E only
[4] A, B and E only
Correct Answer: 1
Q.46-50)
Read RC Passage to Answer:
Two factors have mainly caused the present disastrous conditions and events. One is the change in rainfall pattern resulting from climate change. The monsoon behaviour has changed, and rainfall that used to happen over many days occur in a day or even in hours, making it difficult for the soil in the plains and the hills and for many manmade structures to withstand the impact. The high altitude areas along the Western Ghats have been especially vulnerable, because of encroachments, destruction of forests, quarrying and mining, formation of human settlements, setting up of industries and other commercial enterprises, promotion of activities like tourism without checks and regulations and diminution of biodiversity. All these have separately and collectively contributed to the present situation in the Western Ghats region which is ecologically very sensitive and valuable. A western ghat State which has inflicted the most damage on the environment has come to suffer the most.
The report of the Madhav Gadgil Committee which studied the destruction caused to the Western Ghats environment and made sensible recommendations to remedy the situation was thrown into the dust bin, and another committee under Dr K Kasturirangan was setup to water down its proposals. The recommendations of the Kasturirangan Committee were also not implemented. Gadgil had prophetically warned in 2013 that the tragedy that is waiting to happen will not take ages but only four or five years to happen. The abnormal natural events and the huge devastation caused by them now may only be intimations of bigger calamities lying in wait in future. Lives which are lost now will not be regained, and nature which is lost will take several hundred years to rebuild itself. The greater tragedy is that the lessons of the tragedy are not learnt at all.
Q.46) Man-made structures are unable to withstand the rain impact due to
[1] The steepness of high altitude areas
[2] Change in monsoon behaviour in recent times
[3] Non-stop rains over a longer period
[4] Soil accumulation in the plains
Correct Answer: 2
Q.47) Which of the following factors have affected the western ghats?
(A) Sensitive bio-diversity
(B) Formation of human settlements
(C) Flora and Fauna of the area
(D) Promotion of unchecked tourism
[1] A and B only
[2] B and C only
[3] C and D only
[4] B and D only
Correct Answer: 4
Q.48) A particular state in the Western Ghats has suffered the most because
[1] It has caused most damage on the environment
[2] It has most of the biodiversity hotspots of the country
[3] The state has many hill stations
[4] The state has too many checks and regulations regarding environment
Correct Answer: 1
Q.49) What is the real tragedy with respect to natural disasters in the Western ghats?
[1] Loss of human lives
[2] The abnormal natural events
[3] Not realising the gravity of the consequences of climate change
[4] Downgrading the disasters
Correct Answer: 3
Q.50) The author of the passage regrets
[1] Environmental ignorance on the part of policymakers
[2] Vulnerability of high altitude areas
[3] Impact of environmental disasters
[4] Non-implementation of reports of committees
Correct Answer: 4
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