Q.1-5)

Q.1) The total number of employees in Organisation C is approximately what percent of the total number of employees in Organisation D?

[1] 147 %

[2] 312%

[3] 207 %

[4] 183 %

Correct Answer: 3

Q.2) What is the total number of males in all the five organisations together?

[1] 13350

[2] 14700

[3] 15960

[4] 16280

Correct Answer: 3

Q.3) What s the ratio of the number of males in Organisation A to the number of males in Organisation C?

[1] 18:31

[2] 9:31

[3] 7:27

[4] 9:19

Correct Answer: 2

Q.4) What is the difference between the number of females in Organisation E and the number of females in Organisation B?

[1] 210

[2] 350

[3] 170

[4] 300

Correct Answer: 1

Q.5) What is the sum of the number of females in organization D and the number of males in organization E?

[1] 4375

[2] 4475

[3] 4500

[4] 4875

Correct Answer: 1

Q.6) What is the name of the score the student would get if the measurements were completely accurate and error-free?

[1] I-score

[2] Neutral score

[3] True score

[4] Z-score

Correct Answer: 3

Q.7) “Contagious” spreading of behaviours through imitation, is known as

[1] Random effect

[2] Ripple effect

[3] Scripted effect

[4] Norm effect

Correct Answer: 2

Q.8) Statement I: In all interactions, a message is sent and a message is received. Sometimes teachers believe they are sending one message, but their voices, body language, choice of words, and gestures may communicate a different message.

Statement II: To deal with cyberbullying, parents should be encouraged to keep computers in a public room in the house.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement lI are incorrect

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: 1

Q.9) Match the column:

A. Intimacy vs. Isolation

B. Ego integrity vs. Despair

C. Generativity vs. Stagnation

D. Identity vs. Confusion

I. normally after retirement

II. much of adulthood

III. during adolescence

IV. during the 20s

[1] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[2] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[3] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[4] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

Correct Answer: 1

Q.10) Which among the following are components of decision traps to illustrate what needs to be a possible evaluator framework to monitor the learning process?

A. Overconfidence

B. Coaching

C. Frame blindness

D. Taking shortcuts

E. Persistent misconception

[1] A, C and D only

[2] A, D and E only

[3] B, D and E only

[4] B, C and D only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.11) The rationalistic mode of knowledge accepts the rules of

[1] Legality

[2] Manipulation

[3] Logic

[4] Authority

Correct Answer: 3

Q.12) Which of the following reliability techniques are used in qualitative research?

A. Diachronic reliability

B. Quixotic reliability

C. synchronic reliability

D. Holsti’s constant

E. Chronbach’s alpha

[1] B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] A C and E only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.13) Which of the following are the essential characteristics of the case study method?

A. Negatively oriented

B. Appreciation oriented

C. Particularistic

D. Descriptive

E. Inductive

[1] B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] A, B and E only

Correct Answer: 3

Q.14) Statement I: Qualitative research is impressionistic and subjective.

Statement II Quantitative research has a higher level of possibility of generalising the findings.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.15) Match the column:

A. Arbitrary Scale

B. Thurstone Scale

C. Likert Scale

D. Semantic differential

I. Attitude statements are decided by judges

II. Summated ratings

III. Consists of seven spaces between two bipolar adjectives

IV. Questions are selected on an a Priori basis

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[4] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

Correct Answer: 2

Q.16) Media kits are used in

[1] Confidential communication

[2] Internal communication

[3] Classroom communication

[4] External communication

Correct Answer: 4

Q.17) Non-verbal communication makes use of-

A. Behaviour to generate meanings

B. Emotional meanings

C. A non-clear system of rules

D. Verbal finesse

E. Clarity in abstraction

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] C, D and E only

[4] A, B and E only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.18) A competent communicator is

A. Culturally neutral

B. Culturally sensitive

C. Totally ethical

D. Situationally ethical

E. An effective listener

[1] A, B and C only

[2] B, C and D only

[3] B, C and E only

[4] C, D and E only

Correct Answer: 3

Q.19) Information provided before sending the primary message is known as

[1] Intro

[2] Indicator

[3] Pre-message

[4] Feed forward

Correct Answer: 4

Q.20) Statement I: People use non-verbal cues more than verbal cues.

Statement II: Non-verbal cues have better believability than spoken words.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.21) What number should replace the question mark(?)?

3529, 64, 9817, 115, 3257, ?

[1] 126

[2] 89

[3] 98

[4] 146

Correct Answer: 2

Q.22) A man weighs 75% of his own weight plus 39 Ibs. How much does he weigh?

[1] 165 lbs

[2] 160 lbs

[3] 156 lbs

[4] 166 lbs

Correct Answer: 3

Q.23) Ravi’s salary is increased by 20%. On the increased salary, the tax rate is 10% higher. The percentage increase in tax liability is

[1] 20 %

[2] 22%

[3] 23 %

[4] 24 %

Correct Answer: 2

Q.24) Statement I: A 60 m long train passes a 90 m platform in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is 45 km/hour.

Statement II: If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a:b, then the ratio of the time taken by them to cover the same distance is a:b.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 2

Q.25) A. At 5% rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15 years.

B. A sum becomes double in 10 years. The annual rate of simple interest is 12%.

C. Rs. 1000 will become Rs. 1331 in 3 years at compound interest rate of 10% per annum.

Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?

[1] C only

[2] A and C only

[3] B and C only

[4] A and B only

Correct Answer: 1

Q.26) Match the column:

Propositions

A. If ‘A’ is false

B. If ‘E’ is true

C. If ‘I’ is false

D. If ‘O’ is true

Square of opposition

I. ‘A’ and ‘I’ are false

II. ‘E’ is false and ‘I’ is true

III. ‘E’ and ‘O’ are true

IV. ‘E’ and ‘I’ are Undetermined

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[3] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[4] A-IV B-I C-III D-II

Correct Answer: 4

Q.27) Name the fallacy committed in the argument

All dogs are mammals.

No cats are dogs.

Therefore, no cats are mammals.

[1] Illicit Major

[2] Illicit Minor

[3] Undistributed Middle

[4] Existential Fallacy

Correct Answer: 1

Q.28) From the options given below, pick the CORRECT sequence in the context of constituent parts of inference

[1] Hetu, Udaharana, Nigamana, Upanaya, Pratijna

[2] Nigamana, Hetu, Udaharana, Upanaya, Pratija

[3] Pratiji, Hetu, Upanaya, Udaharana, Nigamana

[4] Pratijfia, Hetu, Udaharana, Upanaya, Nigamana

Correct Answer: 4

Q.29) Match the column:

A. Samanyalaksana Pratyaksa

B. Jnana laksana pratyaksa

C. Yogaj pratyaksa

D. Alaukika pratyaksa

I. intuitive perception of all objects-past, distant and future due to supernormal powers

II. when objects are not actually present to sense but are conveyed to it through a special medium

III. perception of an object which is in contact with sense through previous knowledge of itself

IV. The perception of whole class of objects through a generic property

[1] A-II B-I C-III D-IV

[2] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

[3] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[4] A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Correct Answer: 3

Q.30) The example ‘sound is eternal because it is caused’ represents which of the following Hetvabhasa

[1] Ashrayasiddha

[2] Svarpasiddha

[3] Viruddha

[4] Kalatita

Correct Answer: 3

Q.31) Assertion A: A good computer networking solution can be very much beneficial for your business.

Reason R: With computer networking, you can cut back on costs and allow for efficient use of resources.

[1] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

[3] A is true but R is false

[4] A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: 1

Q.32) Arrange the following optical storage devices in increasing order of their storage capacity.

A. DVD

B. CD-ROM

C. Blu-Ray

[1] A, B, C

[2] B, A, C

[3] A, C, B

[4] B, C, A

Correct Answer: 2

Q.33) Statement I: Tablet computers have touch screens.

Statement II: A tablet computer has a keyboard.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true

Correct Answer: 3

Q.34) Which of the following statements about desktop and laptop computers are TRUE?

A. Most modern laptop computers have built-in webcams

B. Desktop computers are not very portable

C. Al desktop computers have built-in touchpad

D. Laptop computers are rarely supplied with a mouse

[1] A, B and C only

[2] A, B and D only

[3] B, C and D only

[4] A, B, C and D

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Match the column:

A. Operating system

B. Application software

C. Processor

D. Network Device

I. Pentium

II. Linux

III. router

IV. anti-virus

[1] A-I B-IV C-II D-III

[2] A-II B-IV C-I D-III

[3] A-II B-IV C-III D-I

[4] A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Correct Answer: 2

Q.36) If the wind speeds increase from 4.0 m/s to 5.0 m/s, the power output from an ideal windmill will increase by a factor of about

[1] ~2

[2] ~3

[3] ~4

[4] ~5

Correct Answer: 1

Q.37) In which year did the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol come to an end?

[1] 2011

[2] 2012

[3] 2014

[4] 2008

Correct Answer: 2

Q.38) Match the column:

A. Cholera

B. Trachoma

C. Schistosomiasis

D. Dengue

I. lack of water to maintain cleanliness

II. involves water contact but not ingestion

III. ingestion of polluted water

IV. require host

[1] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[2] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[3] A-III B-I C-II D-IV

[4] A-I B-III C-II D-IV

Correct Answer: 3

Q.39) Which one of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is related to sustainable consumption and production patterns?

[1] SDG 9

[2] SDG 10

[3] SDG 11

[4] SDG 12

Correct Answer: 4

Q.40-45)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

A global light pollution map developed by a group of researchers has ranked New Delhi, Kolkotta and Bengaluru as the three cities with the highest light pollution in India. It should serve to alert us to the looming problem of light pollution about which we are not only doing so little to prevent but are also unaware about. Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting. While artificial outdoor lighting is needed in the form of street lights it increases safety on roads and enables us to study and work in the dark, its use for floodlighting, illumination, advertising, etc has grown manifold in recent decades, resulting in the problem of light pollution. Studies show that the brightness from outdoor lights has risen steadily across India over a 20 year period, with New Delhi, Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh showing a “very high light intensity pollution” rise between 1993 and 2013.

The use of excessive artificial outdoor lighting has several harmful implications not just for human health but for the wellbeing of animals, birds, insects and our environment. Use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of ‘loss of night.” We find it difficult to fall asleep when the glow of streets enters our homes. It impacts our sleep-wake rhythm, which could have serious implications for our moods and health. lllumination of gardens impacts animals and insects too. It is nocturnal insects and birds that suffer the most due to light pollution. It makes them disoriented, impacts their reproduction and thus their populations.

Q.40) The light pollution map is related to adverse effects of

[1] Sunlight

[2] Outdoor artificial light

[3] Urban electricity projects

[4] Rural electricity projects

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The passage states, “Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting.” The passage highlights that light pollution is caused by excessive use of artificial outdoor lighting, not sunlight or electricity projects.

Q.41) One of the major pollutants is in the form of

[1] Indoor lights

[2] Street lights

[3] Home lights

[4] Illuminated advertising

Correct Answer: 4

Q.42) Light pollution intensity refers to

[1] Increased outdoor brightness during night time

[2] Manifold hike in use of electricity in rural areas

[3] Use of artificial light for road safety

[4] More and more use of electricity in urban areas

Correct Answer: 1

Q.43) Excessive hours of artificial light adversely impacts our-

A. Work schedule

B. Sleep cycle

C. Study hours

D. Moods and health

[1] A and B only

[2] B and C only

[3] B and D only

[4] C and D only

Correct Answer: 3

Q.44) The loss of night, as mentioned in the passage, will lead to

[1] More human productivity

[2] Increase in education

[3] The altered activities of nocturnal creatures

[4] The well-being of human population

Correct Answer: 3

Q.45) What fraction (%) of the total primary energy used in India is derived from biomass?

[1] ~ 32%

[2] ~ 42%

[3] ~ 56%

[4] ~ 22%

Correct Answer: 1

Q.46) What does NIRF stand for?

[1] National Institute of Ranking Federation

[2] National Institute of Ranking Framework

[3] National Institutional Ranking Framework

[4] National Institutional Ranking Federation

Correct Answer: 3

Q.47) The term ‘open learning’ represent approaches that focus on-

A. Opening access to education and training provision

B. Freeing learners from the constraints of time and place

C. Learning and evaluation without a specified curriculum

D. Offering flexible learning opportunities to individuals and groups of learners

E. Making students free from any educational loads

[1] A, B and C only

[2] A, B and D only

[3] A, B and E only

[4] B, C and D only

Correct Answer: 2

Q.48) In CBCS, Ability Enhancement Courses are of two kinds. They are:

A. Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses

B. Skill Enhancement Compulsory Courses

C. Ability Enhancement Elective Courses

D. Skill Enhancement Elective Courses

E. Skill Enhancement Courses

[1] A and B only

[2] A and C only

[3] A and D only

[4] A and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.49) Which of the following is a private university?

[1] Anna University

[2] BITS Pilani

[3] Burdwan University

[4] IIIT

Correct Answer: 2

Q.50) India has been attracting only a fraction of international students because of

A. Lack of residential accommodation for foreign students

B. Difficulties in recognition of international qualification

C. Rigid admission process

D. Lack of enthusiasm among teachers

E. Lack of enthusiasm among students

[1] A and B only

[2] B and C only

[3] C and D only

[4] D and E only

Correct Answer: 1