June 2023 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 20th June 2023 : Morning Shift)
December 7, 2023 2025-08-21 15:55June 2023 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 20th June 2023 : Morning Shift)
June 2023: Paper 1 (Conducted on 20th June 2023 : Morning Shift)
Q.1-5)
Q.1) In company E, if the average number of employees who are Graduates in Arts and Commerce is 377, then the number of employees in company E is
[1] 1120
[2] 1160
[3] 1320
[4] 1360
Correct Answer: 2
Q.2) In Company B, if the number of employees increased by 20% from December 2021 to December 2022 and 20% of the total number of employees in December 2022 are Science Graduates. then the number of employees who are Science Graduates in December 2022, is
[1] 588
[2] 532
[3] 336
[4] 504
Correct Answer: 3
Q.3) In company A, if the ratio between the number of employees who are graduates in Commerce and Arts is 10:7. then the number of employees who are graduates in Arts in the same Company is.
[1] 532
[2] 588
[3] 560
[4] 616
Correct Answer: 2
Q.4) In company B, the difference between the number of employees who are Graduates in Arts and Graduates in Science is.
[1] 174
[2] 178
[3] 154
[4] 146
Correct Answer: 3
Q.5) If the number of employees in company D is 3 times the number of employees in Company C and the difference between the number of employees who are Arts Graduates in company D and that in company C is 480, then the number of employees in company C is
[1] 2880
[2] 2640
[3] 1800
[4] 2400
Correct Answer: 4
Q.6) United Nations conference on Environment and Development that was held in 1992 at Rio de Janeiro is also known as-
[1] Ozone Summit
[2] Conference on human environment
[3] Earth Summit
[4] Conference on wetlands
Correct Answer: 3
Q.7) According to NEP 2020 as a response to contemporary global challenges ‘Global Citizenship Education’ will be provided to learners to become active promoters of_______ societies.
A. tolerant
B. peaceful
C. inclusive
D. secure
E. sustainable
[1] BCE
[2] AC
[3] ABCDE
[4] BDE
Correct Answer: 3
Q.8) Statement I: A cookie is a packet of information sent by a web browser to a web server.
Statement II: Spam can ‘clog up’ a user’s inbox with unwanted emails: it can also lead to phishing attacks.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: 4
Q.9) Ms. Smith wants to create a mind-map for her students to understand the different parts of flowers. Which of the following tools would be most suitable?
A. Miro
B. Coggle
C. Podcat
D. Mindmeister
E. Edpuzzle
[1] CDE
[2] AD
[3] ABD
[4] CE
Correct Answer: 3
Q.10) Which among the following is NOT a type of Longitudinal Research?
[1] Cross-sectional study
[2] Trend study
[3] Prospective study
[4] Cohort study
Correct Answer: 1
Q.11) If the radius of a circle is increased by 10%, its area will increase by-
[1] 10%
[2] 100%
[3] 20%
[4] 21%
Correct Answer: 4
Q.12) According to NEP 2020, assessments of educational approaches in undergraduate education integrating humanities and arts with which of the following disciplines have consistently shown positive learning outcomes?
A. Science
B. Mathematics
C. Technology
D. Mass Media
E. Engineering
[1] ABCE
[2] BC
[3] ADE
[4] CDE
Correct Answer: 1
Q.13) Electrostatic Precipitators are used to control
[1] Air Pollution
[2] Water Pollution
[3] Soil Pollution
[4] Noise Pollution
Correct Answer: 1
Q.14) The brain system that provides temporary holding and processing of information to accomplish complex cognitive tasks such as language comprehension, learning, and reasoning: the information that you are focusing on at a given moment, is concerned with
[1] Episodic memory
[2] Working memory
[3] Semantic memory
[4] Short-term memory
Correct Answer: 2
Q.15) Which among the following are correct statements about an independent variable?
A. It can have at most two levels.
B. It can have any number of levels.
C. It can be qualitative variable.
D. It can be a quantitative variable.
[1] ACD
[2] BCD
[3] BD
[4] ABD
Correct Answer: 2
Q.16) A certain sum of money becomes Rs1000 in 2 years and Rs1100 in 4 years at simple rate of interest. The rate of interest per annum is
[1] 4 3/7%
[2] 5 5/9%
[3] 7 4/7%
[4] 6 4/9%
Correct Answer: 2
Q.17) Click-jacking, a type of cyber attack is-
[1] A device that sends and receives data at every click in a bit per second
[2] A device which counts clicks on Internet
[3] A malicious technique of tricking web users into revealing confidential information
[4] A digital process that is used to display an image on mobile.
Correct Answer: 3
Q.18) 70% of the cost price of an article is equal to 50% of its selling price. The percentage of profit or loss on the cost price is-
[1] 20% profit
[2] 20% loss
[3] 40% profit
[4] 40% loss
Correct Answer: 3
Q.19) The Hunter Commission recommended the withdrawal of government support to-
[1] Collegiate education
[2] Adult education
[3] Moral education
[4] Primary education
Correct Answer: 1
Q.20) Arrange the following group of terms in order of decreasing intension.
A. Mammal
B. Wildcat
C. Feline
D. Animal
E. Vertebrate
[1] BCAED
[2] DEACB
[3] CBEAD
[4] DAEBC
Correct Answer: 1
Q.21) Statement I: The goal of reciprocal teaching is to help students understand and think deeply what they have read.
Statement II: Adaptive teaching provides all students with challenging instruction and uses supports when needed but removes these supports as students become able to handle more on their own.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: 1
Q.22) Statements I: Google Drive is an extension of Google Docs and provides cloud storage services.
Statement II: iCloud is a cloud storage service provided by Apple.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: 1
Q.23) Which of the following assessment procedures tests skills and abilities as they would be applied in real-life situations?
[1] Formative assessment
[2] Authentic assessment
[3] Ipsative assessment
[4] Peer assessment
Correct Answer: 2
Q.24) In a certain coding scheme. the word ‘SCHOOL’ is coded as ‘TEKSTR’. How will the word ‘OFTEN’ be coded in the same scheme?
[1] PHWIS
[2] PGUFO
[3] PHVGP
[4] PHUGO
Correct Answer: 1
Q.25) In terms of communication, story-telling is like performing a
[1] Social act
[2] Seasonal act
[3] Confrontationist
[4] Corporate act
Correct Answer: 1
Q.26) “No poets are scientists. Some artists are poets. Therefore some artists are scientists.” Which formal fallacy is committed in this argument?
[1] Denying the antecedent
[2] Exclusive premises
[3] Fallacy of drawing an affirmative conclusion from a negative premise
[4] Existential fallacy
Correct Answer: 3
Q.27) Pyrolysis-
A. is a biochemical conversion process
B. is useful for production of bio-oil
C. yields minimum waste
D. liquid is a good substitute of heating oil
E. can produce Ethanol
[1] ABCD
[2] BCD
[3] BCDE
[4] ADE
Correct Answer: 2
Q.28) Statement I: Wilbur Schramm’s model of communication had interpreters acting as both encoders and decoders.
Statement II: Wilbur Schramm was one of the first scholars to consider communication as an interactive process.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement I are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: 1
Q.29) In the following letter series, find the next term?
CCABD , DDBCE, EECDF………….
[1] FFDGE
[2] FFDCE
[3] FFDEG
[4] FFDEF
Correct Answer: 3
Q.30) Match the column:
A. Tweening
B. Morphing
C. Rendering
D. Virtual Reality
I. the procedure where one image is changed into another image in a smooth easy (uses tweening to give the transition effect)
II. artificially created environment
III. the generation of intermediate frames between images gives the impression that the first image evolves slowly into the second image
IV. the generation of a image from a model using software
[1] A-III B-IV C-I D-II
[2] A-II B-I C-IV D-III
[3] A-I B-III C-IV D-II
[4] A-III B-I C-IV D-II
Correct Answer: 4
Q.31) Statement I: The form of inductive argument is evaluated in degrees of likelihood or probability.
Statement II: A strong inductive argument that has all the true premises, is called a “cogent” argument.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: 1
Q.32) Statement I: When selection procedure is biased, taking a large sample will help reduce the bias.
Statement II: In a normally distributed data, the chances of individual observed values deviating more than 3 times the standard deviation from the mean value, are very less.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: 4
Q.33) In the context of MS-EXCEL spreadsheet software, consider a case where there are 10000 random numbers from 0 to 1, located in cells A1 through A10000. How many of the following statements A-D are true?
A. A COUNTIFS function in cell B2 with one criteria. based on the range A1:A10000. cannot evaluate to less than 0
B. A COUNTIFS function in cell B2 with two criteria. each based on the range A1:A10000. cannot evaluate to less than 0
C. A COUNTIFS function in cell B2 with one criteria, based on the range A1:A10000, cannot evaluate to greater than 10000
D. A COUNTIFS function in cell B2 with two criteria. based on the range A1:A10000. cannot evaluate to greater than 10000
[1] 4
[2] 3
[3] 2
[4] 1
Correct Answer: 1
Q.34) Identify the correct statements on handling of plagiarism as per UGC Regulations 2018 on plagiarism.
A. A higher education institution can initiate proceedings on the basis of findings of an examiner.
B. A higher education institution cannot take suo moto notice of an act of plagiarism.
C. The Departmental Academic Integrity Panel will be headed by the Head of the Department.
[1] A and B only
[2] A and C only
[3] B and C only
[4] A, B and C
Correct Answer: 2
Q.35) Which of the following arrangements involve fallacy of the irregular middle term?
A. Sound is a quality because it is visible.
B. Sound is eternal. because it is audible.
C. Sound is eternal because it is produced.
D. All things are non-eternal, because they are knowable.
[1] ABC
[2] BD
[3] BC
[4] ABD
Correct Answer: 2
Q.36) Which of the following are features of mass communication?
A. Face-to-face
B. Private
C. Public
D. Rapid
E. From a professional source
[1] A, B, C only
[2] B, C, D only
[3] C, D, E only
[4] A, B, E only
Correct Answer: 3
Q.37) Statement I: Verbal communication becomes more powerful if accompanied by non-verbal messages.
Statement II: Non-verbal communication does not reflect personal feelings, emotions and attitudes.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: 3
Q.38) Which fallacy is exemplified in the following statements “Of course gun ownership should not be prohibited. You can kill someone with a hockey stick, but no one proposes to ban ownership of hockey sticks.”?
[1] Slippery slope
[2] Weak Analogy
[3] Red Herring
[4] Straw Man
Correct Answer: 2
Q.39) Statement I: The p-value of a test depends on sample size.
Statement II: An important difference may not be statistically significant if the sample size is too small.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: 1
Q.40) Amongst the following Green House Gases (GHGs). whose Global Warming Potential (GWP) is considered as 1?
[1] Chlorofluoro carbon (CFC)
[2] Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
[3] Carbon dioxide (CO2)
[4] Methane (CH4)
Correct Answer: 3
Q.41) Statement I: Some people suffer from what is called as Sick Building Syndrome (SBS).
Statement II: SBS is caused due to supply of polluted water in a particular building.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: 3
Q.42) Subliminal communication is part of-
[1] Government notification
[2] Political propaganda
[3] Legal documentation
[4] Research reports
Correct Answer: 2
Q.43) Which of the following are the elements of cooperative learning?
A. Individual accountability
B. Positive interdependence
C. Promotive interaction
D. Social skills
E. Group processing
[1] ABCD
[2] BE
[3] CDE
[4] ABCDE
Correct Answer: 4
Q.44) Statements I: In Ancient times, Nalanda attained greatest and most brilliant achievements in the field of logic.
Statement II: Each professor in Nalanda had charge of one subject only.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: 1
Q.45-49) Read RC Passage to Answer:
Firefighters are often asked to speak to school and community groups about the importance of fire safety, particularly fire prevention and detection. Because smoke detectors reduce the risk of dying in a fire by half, firefighters often provide audiences with information on how to install these protective devices in their homes.
Specially, they tell them these things: A smoke detector should be placed on each floor of a home. While sleeping people are in particular danger of an emergent fire, and there must be a detector outside each sleeping area. A good site for a detector would be a hallway that runs between living spaces and bedrooms.
Because of the dead-air space that might be missed by turbulent hot air bouncing around above a fire, smoke detectors should be installed cither on the ceiling at least four inches from the nearest wall, or high on a wall at least four, but no further than twelve inches from the ceiling.
Detectors should not be mounted near windows. exterior doors, or other places where drafts might direct the smoke away from the unit. Nor should they be placed in kitchens and garages. where cooking and gas fumes are likely to cause false alarms.
Q.45) A smoke detector should not be installed near a window because-
[1] Outside fumes may trigger a false alarm.
[2] A draft may create dead-air space.
[3] A draft may pull smoke away from the the detector.
[4] Outside noise may muffle the sound of the detector .
Correct Answer: 3
Q.46) The passage indicates that one of the responsibilities of a firefighter is to-
[1] Install smoke detectors in the homes of residents in the community.
[2] Check homes to see if smoke detectors have been properly installed.
[3] Develop Fire safety programmes for community leaders and school. teachers
[4] Speak to school groups about the importance of preventing fires.
Correct Answer: 4
Q.47) What is the main focus of this passage?
[1] How firefighters carry out their responsibilities
[2] The proper installation of home smoke detectors
[3] The detection of dead-air space on walls and ceiling
[4] How smoke detectors prevent fires in homes
Correct Answer: 2
Q.48) A smoke detector must always be placed-
[1] outside at least one of the bedrooms on any levels of the home.
[2] outside all bedrooms in a home.
[3] in all hallways of a home.
[4] in kitchens where fires are most likely to start.
Correct Answer: 2
Q.49) The passage states that. compared with people who do not have smoke detectors persons who live in homes with smoke detectors have a
[1] 50% better chance of surviving a fire.
[2] 50% better chance of preventing a fire.
[3] 75% better chance of detecting a hidden fire.
[4] 100% better chance of not getting injured in a fire.
Correct Answer: 1