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June 2024: Paper 1 (Conducted on 18th June 2024 : Evening Shift)

June 2024: Paper 1 (Conducted on 18th June 2024 : Evening Shift)

Q.1-5) Table I shows the percentage distribution of patients with various diseases in the world in 2023. Table II shows the percentage distribution of all the patient and kidney patients on various continents in 2023. The total population of the work in the year 2023 is 800 crore and 10% of them are patients.

Table I – Disease-wise Percentage of Patients in the World

Heart Disease

AIDS

TB

Hapatitis

Kidney Disease

Others

22%

10%

8%

6%

30%

24%

Table II – Continent-wise details of all Patience and Kidney Patients.

Continents

Percentage Distribution of

All Patient

Kidney Patients

Europe

10%

10%

Australia

6%

5%

South America

15%

40%

Africa

25%

10%

North America

12%

15%

Asia

32%

20%

Q.1) If the number of Kidney patients in South America decreases by 25%, then what is the percent decrease in the number of Kidney patients in the world?

[1] 4%

[2] 8%

[3] 10%

[4] 5%

Correct Answer: 3

Q.2) If the number of patients increases by 10% every year in Europe, then what is the difference between the number of patients in Europe after two years and the number of Kidney patients in South America in 2023?

[1] 8 lakh

[2] 9 lakh

[3] 7 lakh

[4] 5 lakh

Correct Answer: 1

Q.3) If the number of hepatitis patients in the world increases by 6% and that of heart disease increases by 22%, then what will be the new ratio of the number of hepatitis patients to the number of heart disease patients in the world?

[1] 156:673

[2] 14:61

[3] 159:671

[4] 2:11

Correct Answer: 3

Q.4) The number of Kidney patients in Australia is approximately ___ of the number of patients of heart disease in the world.

[1] 6.01%

[2] 6.82%

[3] 5.49%

[4] 7.85%

Correct Answer: 2

Q.5) What is the ratio of the number of patients in Africa to the total number of Kidney patients in Aisa and North America together?

[1] 3:1

[2] 2:1

[3] 49:22

[4] 50:21

Correct Answer: 4

Q.6) List – I (Communication form)

A. Personal address

B. Social drama

C. Narratives

D. Silence

List – II (Description)

I. Sequential accounts told and retold from a particular viewpoint

II. Subject to a community’s rules for appropriate conduct

III. Points to self and others in interaction

IV. Invokes local socio-cultural rules for behavior

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

[1] A-I B-III C-IV D-II

[2] A-II B-I C-III D-IV

[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

Correct Answer: 3

Q.7) Employment of classroom technology needs clarity with regard to :

A. Instructional messages

B. Course objectives

C. Technological competencies

D. Experience of failures

E. Institutional indolence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A B C

[2] B C D

[3] C D E

[4] A D E

Correct Answer: 1

Q.8) Arrange the following sections of a research dissertation in the correct sequence.

A. Acknowledgment

B. Research Methods

C. Discussion

D. Literature review

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A B C D

[2] B D C A

[3] D B C A

[4] A D B C

Correct Answer: 4

Q.9) Identify the correct sequence from (earliest to latest) of the universities established in the years of twentieth century India :

A. Osmania University

B. Aligarh Muslim University

C. SNDT Women’s University

D. Nagpur University

E. Patna University

Choose the correct answer from the options given:

[1] E A C B D

[2] C E A B D

[3] D A C E B

[4] A D E B C

Correct Answer: 2

Q.10) Which of the following refers to a sampling approach in structured observation whereby a sampled individual is observed for a set period of time?

[1] Focal sampling

[2] Snowball sampling

[3] Purposive sampling

[4] Cluster sampling

Correct Answer: 1

Q.11) Which of the following are the characteristics of mass communication?

A. Homogeneous audience

B. Professional communication as a source

C. Immediate feedback

D. Use of medium

E. Rapid transmission of messages

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

[1] A B C

[2] B C D

[3] C D E

[4] B D E

Correct Answer: 4

Q.12) Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement – “No cats are non-feline”?

[1] No felines are cats.

[2] All non-cats are feline.

[3] All cats are feline

[4] Al felines are cats.

Correct Answer: 3

Q.13) In Buddhist thought, self-reflexivity is built into the process of:

[1] Power relations

[2] Religions change

[3] Verbal communication

[4] Politicisation

Correct Answer: 3

Q.14) Arrange the following fractions in increasing order

A. 14/17

B. 11/13

C. 7/9

D. 16/19

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

[1] C A B D

[2] C A D B

[3] A D C B

[4] B C A D

Correct Answer: 2

Q.15) What is the correct sequence (from lower number to higher) of the following related to Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

A. Number of Publications

B. Number of Goals

C. Number of Targets

D. Number of Indicators

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A B C D

[2] B D C A

[3] B C D A

[4] C B A D

Correct Answer: 3

Q.16) Which of the following are the National Coordinators appointed for SWAYAM courses?

A. Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IME)

B. National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL)

C. National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

D. Block Institute of Teacher Education (BITE)

E. Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

[1] B and D only

[2] C, D and E only

[3] A, B, and C only

[4] A, B, C and E only

Correct Answer: 4

Q.17) Which of the following statements are true?

A. Truth and falsehood are attributes of individual propositions.

B. Validity can never apply to any single proposition by itself.

C. In a valid argument all of its premises have to be true.

D. A valid deductive argument cannot have all true premises and a false conclusion.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

[1] A B D

[2] A C

[3] A C D

[4] C D

Correct Answer: 1

Q.18) (Water specific diseases)

A. Waterborne diseases (Due to ingestion of polluted water)

B. Water-washed diseases (Due to lack of cleaning water)

C. Water-based diseases (Due to contact with polluted water)

D. Water-related diseases (Due to habitation of disease-causing parasites in polluted water)

(Examples)

I. Malaria

II. Schistosomiasis

III. Typhoid

IV. Trachoma

Choose the correct answer from the options :

[1] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[2] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

[3] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[4] A-II B-IV C-III D-I

Correct Answer: 2

Q.19) Which one of the following is an extremely short-lived and unstable air/water pollutant?

[1] SMOG

[2] Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)

[3] Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

[4] Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs)

Correct Answer: 2

Q.20) (Words)

A. BOLT

B. RING

C. SOLD

D. FROM

(Codes with the same rule)

I. 52

II. 50

III. 49

IV. 48

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[3] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[4] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

Correct Answer: 4

Q.21) A culture that is not touched by communication of alphabetic writing is known as a culture

[1] Literacy

[2] Typography

[3] Exclusivity

[4] Primary Orality

Correct Answer: 4

Q.22) Identify the correct sequence of the cycle of self-regulated learning.

A. Enacting Tactics and strategies

B. Devising Plans

C. Setting Goals

D. Regulating learning

E. Analyzing the task

[1] D B C A E

[2] C D B A E

[3] E C B A D

[4] A B C D E

Correct Answer: 3

Q.23) Which of the following are true about Solar Thermal Energy Collectors (STEC)?

A. The Basic Unit of STEC is a solar cell.

B. STECs may be Flat plate or concentrating type.

C. Temperature in STECs may rise over a thousand degrees centigrade.

D. STECs can produce electricity.

E. Paraboloid dish collector is an example of STEC where temperature can go up to 2000°C.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

[1] A D

[2] B C D E

[3] A B C E

[4] A B C D E

Correct Answer: 2

Q.24) International Solar Alliance (ISA) is the alliance countries most of which lie partially or completely –

[1] Above tropic of cancer

[2] Below tropic of Capricorn

[3] Between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn

[4] Southern hemisphere

Correct Answer: 3

Q.25) The systematic elimination of extraneous variables other than those you are interested in can be achieved in:

[1] Qualitative research

[2] Correlational research

[3] Experimental research

[4] Longitudinal research

Correct Answer: 3

Q.26) Arrange the following in order of increasing connotation :

A. Domestic Animal

B. Animal

C. Hose

D. Beast of burdenn

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

[1] CDBA

[2] BACD

[3] BADC

[4] CDAB

Correct Answer: 3

Q.27) If (L)M represents a number L in the base – M number system, then identify the correct ascending order of the following numbers A-D, when converted to a base-10 number system.

A (8B)16

B. (212)8

C. (260)7

D. (10001101)2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] B A C D

[2] D C A B

[3] A B C D

[4] C D B A

Correct Answer: 1

Q.28) I believe I will do well in this class, ‘Ram declared to his brother. “I received a perfect score in the verbal part of the SAT, and I have always excelled in my literature classes.’ Ram is demonstrating which of the following?

[1] Higher self-esteem

[2] High levels of empathy

[3] High self-efficacy in literature

[4] Low self-efficacy in literature

Correct Answer: 3

Q.29) (Internet Protocol)

A. HTTP

B. SSL

C. SMTP

D. FTP

(Internet Activity)

I. Sends email through the internet

II. Encrypts data for Online Transmission

III. Sends TCP/IP Packets to a web server

IV. Transfers files over the Internet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

[1] A-IV B-III C-II D-I

[2] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

[3] A-I B-IV C-III D-II

[4] A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Correct Answer: 4

Q.30) The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) measures the number of students enrolled in higher education as a percentage of the eligible population aged between:

[1] 18 to 24 Years

[2] 19 to 25 Years

[3] 18 to 23 Years

[4] 17 to 23 Years

Correct Answer: 3

Q.31) (College)

A. Poona College for Hindu Learning

B. Hindu College, Kolkata (Presidensy Collgie)

C. Bishop College, Sibpur

D. Scottish Missionary College, Kolkata

(Founder)

I. Alexander Duff

II. M. Elphinstone

III. Rajaram Mohan Roy

IV. Church of England

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[2] A-II B-III C-IV D-I

[3] A-III B-IV C-I D-II

[4] A-IV B-I C-II D-III

Correct Answer: 2

Q.32) Identify the list of 4 quadrants of the courses hosted on SWAYAM –

A. Self-assessment tests

B. Video lecture

C. Online discussion forum for clearing the doubts

D. Specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed

E. Face-to-Face interaction among learners o

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

[1] A B D E

[2] A B C D

[3] C D E

[4] C E

Correct Answer: 2

Q.33) (Threats to Internal Validity)

A. Maturation threat

B. Attrition threat

C. History threat

D. Testing threat

(Description)

I. When participants’ behavior changes as a function of having been tested previously.

II. When some event outside the research project affects participants systematically.

III. Occurs because of short or long-term changes in participants because of psychological changes like boredom, fatigue etc.

IV. When participants drop out of a study, leading to a change in the nature of the sample.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A-IV B-III C-I D-II

[2] A-III B-IV C-II D-I

[3] A-I B-II C-III D-IV

[4] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

Correct Answer: 2

Q.34) A 500m long train running at a speed of 100m/s crosses a tunnel in 10s. What is the length of the tunnel?

[1] 200m

[2] 500m

[3] 800m

[4] 1000m

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Which digital platform of Ministry of Education has been formed by merging three consort initiatives, namely UGC-INFONET Digital library consortium, NLIST, and INDEST-AICTE consortium?

[1] Shodh Ganga

[2] e-Shodh Sindhu

[3] E-Vidwan

[4] Shodh Shuddhi

Correct Answer: 2

Q.36) Which of the following computer devices are output devices only?

A. Trackball

B. CRT monitor

C. Number pad

D. Plotter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A B

[2] A B D

[3] C D

[4] B D

Correct Answer: 4

Q.37) A sum of 50 is divided among A, B, and C in such a way that A gets 5 less than B, and B gets 10 less than C. What is the ratio of their money share?

[1] 1 : 2 : 3

[2] 2 : 3 : 4

[3] 1 : 2 : 4

[4] 2 : 3 : 5

Correct Answer: 4

Q.38) Identify the scale/scales of measurement that would allow the ranking of observations.

A. nominal scale

B. ordinal scale

C. interval scale

D. ratio scale

Choose the correct answer from the optibis given below :

[1] A B C

[2] B C D

[3] B

[4] A B

Correct Answer: 2

Q.39) Around 1945, who developed the idea of a stored program computer that was to hold programs and data in memory, and then data would move between the memory and the processor?

[1] Alan Turing

[2] Tim Berners – Lee

[3] Charles Babbage

[4] John Von Neumann

Correct Answer: 4

Q.40) Which fallacy is committed in the following statement?

“Tarun cannot be guilty of murder since there is no way, Tarun could kill someone.”

[1] Hasty Generalisation

[2] Slippery Slope

[3] Being the Question

[4] Inappropriate Authority

Correct Answer: 3

Q.41) Which of the following statements about computer memory is correct?

[1] HDDs may experience a ‘‘head crash”.

[2] SSDs are also known as volatile memory.

[3] HDDs do not have any moving parts.

[4] Computers usually have more primary memory than secondary memory

Correct Answer: 1

Q.42) Which of the following statements are correct as per the Classical Indian School of logic (Nyaya)

A. Nyaya syllogism has three propositions.

B. Nyaya syllogism has five propositions

C. Nyaya syllogism has three terms.

D. Nyaya syllogism has five terms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] B D

[2] B C

[3] A D

[4] A C

Correct Answer: 2

Q.43) Which of the following statements are true regarding Macaulay?

A. He succeeded in replacing Persian with, English as the administrative language.

B. He promoted the training of English-speaking Indians as teachers.

C. He was inspired by Utilitarian ideas.

D. He promoted “useful learning”

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1] A B

[2] B C

[3] A C

[4] A B C D

Correct Answer: 4

Q.44) Which of the following is an ancient Indian treatise on problems related to Mathematics?

[1] Nyaya Sutras

[2] Lilavati

[3] Mimamsa Sutras

[4] Pramanavarttika

Correct Answer: 2

Q.45) Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A man purchased an item at 4/5 of its selling price X and sold it at 5% more than X. His gain is 25%

B. A dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a weight of 900g for a kg weight. His gain is 11 1/9%

C. If the loss is one-third of the selling price, the loss percentage is 25%

D. By selling 100 pens, a vendor gains the selling price of 20 spends. His gain is 20%.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

[1] A B

[2] B C

[3] C D

[4] A D

Correct Answer: 2

Q.46-50)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

Micron’s $ 800 million semiconductor plant followed by recent approval to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and Assembly, Testing, and Packaging (ATP) plants with an investment of ₹ 1,30,00 crore (and more in the pipeline) are the beginning of a transformational global supply chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India. This will create a multiplier effect on talented and skilled workforces inside India.

It’s a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian. However, the need for a domestic semiconductor workforce is estimated to be around 3,00,000 by 2026. In addition, there is also a huge manpower requirement of almost six million in the electronic manufacturing sector which will be the largest beneficiary of this chip boom.

The current combined Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) graduate output from India’s higher education institutions is inadequate.

The growth is certainly going to come from the non-IITian orbit and the policy pathways of the Ministries of Electronics and IT and Education converge to present bountiful opportunities for industry and academia to work together.

This industry-academia synergy was key to India’s software success story. Now a similar trifecta of government-industry-academia is needed to make this a winning semicon trio.

Q.46) India’s share in the semiconductor global talent pool is :

[1] Two-thirds

[2] One-third

[3] Three-fourths

[4] One-fifth

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The passage states, “It’s a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian.”

Q.47) As a result of the chip boom, the requirement of the workforce in the electronics manufacturing sector will:

[1] remain unchanged

[2] lead to job losses

[3] increase

[4] drastically go down

Correct Answer: 3

Q.48) The need for additional talented and skilled workforce in the domestic semiconductor sector has been created by :

A. The approval was given to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and ATP plants

B. Micron’s $ 800 million semiconductor plant

C. Setting up of new Universities

D. The global supply chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India

Choose the most appropriate answer to the options given below :

[1] A B

[2] A C D

[3] B C D

[4] A B D

Correct Answer: 4

Q.49) Micron set up a :

[1] Fabrication plant

[2] An ATP plant

[3] A semiconductor plant

[4] An engineering college

Correct Answer: 3

Q.50) The new talented skilled workforce in India will come mainly from :

[1] STEM graduates

[2] The Non-IITian orbit

[3] The llTs

[4] Unskilled labour force

Correct Answer: 2

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