March 2023 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 14th March 2023 : Evening Shift)
June 19, 2023 2025-08-21 16:28March 2023 : Paper 1 (Conducted on 14th March 2023 : Evening Shift)
March 2023: Paper 1 (Conducted on 14th March 2023 : Evening Shift)
Q.1-5)
Q.1) What is the ratio of the number of candidates interviewed by SBI on Friday and Saturday together to that of candidates interviewed by BOI on the same two days?
[1] 35:38
[2] 35:36
[3] 39:40
[4] 45:46
Correct Answer: 2
Q.2) The number of candidates interviewed by IDBI on Wednesday is __ % of the total number of candidates interviewed by all the Banks on the same day.
[1] 26.65
[2] 23.47
[3] 28.47
[4] 24.35
Correct Answer: 2
Q.3) What is the number of candidates interviewed by all the Banks on Tuesday?
[1] 202
[2] 216
[3] 208
[4] 214
Correct Answer: 4
Q.4) Approximately, by what percent the number of candidates interviewed by SBI on Thursday increased with respect to that interviewed on previous day?
[1] 80%
[2] 96 %
[3] 88%
[4] 92%
Correct Answer: 4
Q.5) What is the average of the total number of candidates interviewed by BOB and BOI from Monday to Friday?
[1] 166
[2] 178
[3] 184
[4] 218
Correct Answer: 3
Q.6) Which channel of swayamprabha deals with social science-1 (Social and bevavioural sciences)?
[1] PRABODH – Channel 03
[2] VAGEESH – Channel 01
[3] KAUTILYA – Channel 07
[4] SANSKRITI – Channel – 02
Correct Answer: 1
Q.7) Which of the following are the factors that affect learning?
A. Mental health
B. Attention
C. Gender
D. Readiness
E. Fatigue
[1] BCE
[2] ABDE
[3] CE
[4] ACD
Correct Answer: 2
Q.8) Which of the following are the examples of Learning Management System (LMS)?
A. Schoology
B. Edmodo
C. Canvas
D. Bookcreator
E. LearnDash
[1] BDE
[2] AC
[3] ABCE
[4] BCD
Correct Answer: 3
Q.9) Students watch and listen to the videos of a lecture before coming to the class. It is an example of-
[1] Lecture Method
[2] Flipped Classroom
[3] Programmed learning
[4] Project Method
Correct Answer: 2
Q.10) Which of the following method is based on learning-central approach of Education?
[1] Lecturing – Demonstration
[2] Activity based scaffolding
[3] Joyful Method
[4] Inductive Method
Correct Answer: 2
Q.11) In quantitative research, providing a basis for more precise estimation of the degree of relationship among or between concepts is the function of
[1] Surveying
[2] Reviewing
[3] Measurement
[4] Sampling
Correct Answer: 3
Q.12) A major limitation of the postal questionnaire survey is-
[1] Need for supplementary questions
[2] Availability of extra data
[3] Need for a covering letter
[4] Higher rate of non-response
Correct Answer: 4
Q.13) The photo-elicitation technique is used in-
[1] Experimental research
[2] Visual ethnography
[3] Applied research
[4] Content analysis
Correct Answer: 2
Q.14) Which of the following are advantages of quantitative interviewing over participant observation?
A. Wider range of issues can be discussed.
B. Events can be re-constructed.
C. Ethical aspects of research can be adhered to.
D. Name-calling is permitted.
E. Outsiders can be allowed to interrupt the process.
[1] ABC
[2] BCD
[3] CDE
[4] ADE
Correct Answer: 1
Q.15) Statement I: Coding is an important process in grounded theory in which data are classified into well-defined categories.
Statement Il: The researcher’s interpretations decide his or her emergent codes in grounded theory, and different types of coding are identified.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false.
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
Correct Answer: 1
Q.16) In an implicit business agreement, communication is-
[1] Ambiguous
[2] Fragmented
[3] Contrived
[4] Extensive
Correct Answer: 4
Q.17) In organisational systems, organisational communication supplies-
[1] Attitudinal inputs
[2] Political inputs
[3] Social inputs
[4] Entertainment inputs
Correct Answer: 3
Q.18) Which one of the following is a communication barrier?
[1] Communicatee attention
[2] Semantic distortion
[3] Amplified image
[4] Infographic
Correct Answer: 2
Q.19) Which of the following are objectives in marketing communication?
A. Belittling competitive brands
B. Category need
C. Brand awareness
D. Brand attitude
E. Brand purchase intention
[1] ABCD
[2] BCDE
[3] ACDE
[4] ABDE
Correct Answer: 2
Q.20) Statement I: When messages are delivered by popular sources, they have higher attention and recall of the receivers.
Statement II: A highly credible source may not score much in the areas of expertise, trustworthiness and likability
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false.
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
Correct Answer: 3
Q.21) The ages of two sisters A and B are in the ratio of 7:6. After 12 years, the ratio of their ages will be 9:8. Find the difference between their ages.
[1] 5 years
[2] 4 years
[3] 6 years
[4] 8 years
Correct Answer: 3
Q.22) In a certain code language:
A) ‘It is dark outside’ is coded as: ‘la sa ka tu’
B) “It is still raining’ is coded as: ‘sa la si ra’
C) ‘Raining heavily outside’ is coded as: ‘ra ha tu’
How ‘dark’ and “heavily”, respectively, are coded in that language?
[1] ‘tu’ & ‘si’
[2] ‘la” & ha’
[3] ‘sa” & ‘ra’
[4] ‘ka” & ‘ha’
Correct Answer: 4
Q.23) What number can replace question mark (?) in the series given below?
1, 4, 7, 13, 22, 37, 61, 100, ?
[1] 163
[2] 161
[3] 171
[4] 173
Correct Answer: 1
Q.24) A sum of money deposited in a bank at a simple interest per annum becomes Rs 5200 in 5 years and Rs 5680 in 7 years. Find the rate of interest per annum.
[1] 65%
[2] 6%
[3] 5%
[4] 5.5%
Correct Answer: 2
Q.25) The ratio between Sale price (S.P.) and Cost price (C.P) of an article is 5:3. Find the ratio between profit and the cost price of that article.
[1] 2:3
[2] 4:5
[3] 2:5
[4] 5:2
Correct Answer: 1
Q.26) Which informal fallacy is committed in the following statement – “Famous singer Mr. Shantanu says ABC toothpaste boosts our immunity, therefore we must buy ABC toothpaste™?
[1] Appeal to Ignorance
[2] Red Herring
[3] Strawman
[4] Appeal to Inappropriate authority
Correct Answer: 4
Q.27) Which of the following statements are contrary to each other as per traditional square of opposition?
A. All plants are oxygen producers.
B. Some plants are oxygen producers.
C. Some plants are not oxygen producers.
D. No plants are oxygen producers.
[1] BC
[2] AD
[3] AC
[4] BD
Correct Answer: 2
Q.28) Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?
A. No lions are herbivorous animals.
B. No herbivorous animals are lions.
C. All lions are non-herbivorous animals.
D. All non-herbivorous animals are non-lions.
[1] BCD
[2] CD
[3] BD
[4] ABC
Correct Answer: 4
Q.29) If the statement -“No lions are herbivorous animals” is given as true, then which of the following statements can be immediately inferred to be true?
[1] Some lions are not carnivorous animals.
[2] All lions are herbivorous animals.
[3] Some lions are herbivorous animals.
[4] Some lions are not herbivorous animals.
Correct Answer: 4
Q.30) In which type of following inference the middle term is both positively and negatively related to the major term as per Classical Indian School of Logic?
[1] Kevalvyatireki
[2] Kevalanvayi
[3] Anvayavyatireki
[4] Satpratipaksa
Correct Answer: 3
Q.31)
[1] 120
[2] 254
[3] 90
[4] 244
Correct Answer: 2
Q.32) Statement I: Chatbot is an example of Digital Intelligence.
Statement Il: Amazon’s ‘Alexa’ and Apple’s ‘Siri’ are examples of Artificial Intelligence.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement |l are true.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false.
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
Correct Answer: 1
Q.33) Which of the following are the advantages of Dynamic RAMs (DRAM) over Static RAMs (SRAM)?
A. They are much less expensive to manufacture than SRAM.
B. They consume less power than SRAM.
C. They have a higher storage capacity than SRAM.
D. They are much faster than SRAM when it comes to data access.
[1] ABC
[2] AC
[3] BC
[4] AB
Correct Answer: 1
Q.34) In Computer Networking, which type of wired transmission medium has a core of refined glass?
[1] Optic fibre
[2] Coaxial cable
[3] Shielded twisted pair
[4] Unshielded twisted pair
Correct Answer: 1
Q.35) Two binary numbers are added as given below:
0 b 0 1
c 1 1 a
———-
1 0 d 1
Then(a, b, c,d)= __.
[1] (0,0,1,1)
[2] (0,1,0,1)
[3] (1,0,0,1)
[4] (1,0,1,0)
Correct Answer: 2
Q.36) Statement I: Wind energy has high energy density.
Statement II: Wind energy is an intermittent source of energy.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement |l are correct.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect.
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect.
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct.
Correct Answer: 4
Q.37) Ozone layer is in-
[1] Thermosphere
[2] Mesosphere
[3] Stratosphere
[4] Troposphere
Correct Answer: 3
Q.38) Statement I: Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were set to be achieved by 2030.
Statement II: Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were set to be achieved by 2015.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement |l are correct.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect.
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect.
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct.
Correct Answer: 2
Q.39) Official languages for International Solar Alliance are-
A. Hindi
B. English
C. French
D. Spanish
E. Chinese
[1] ABC
[2] BDE
[3] BCD
[4] BCE
Correct Answer: 1
Q.40) Match the column:
A. water borne
B. water washed
C. water based
D. water related
I. trachoma
II. malaria
III. cholera
IV. schistosomiasis
[1] A-III B-I C-II D-IV
[2] A-III B-I C-IV D-II
[3] A-I B-II C-III D-IV
[4] A-I B-IV C-III D-II
Correct Answer: 2
Q.41) Which among the following is based on passive learning, where the child listens to teachers and follows directions from them?
[1] Cooperative learning
[2] Conventional learning
[3] Non-conventional learning
[4] Play way learning
Correct Answer: 2
Q.42) Statement I: It is said that in the early Vedic period, women had equal rights to get any type of education.
Statement II: In the last phase of Vedic period, as there were no separate gurukuls for girls of the age 12 years and above, they could not receive higher education.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false.
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
Correct Answer: 1
Q.43) Statement I: The Indian universities to reach global standards need sustained support for programmes in research and development.
Statement II: The “knowledge economy’, as envisaged by the Knowledge Commission, does not need government involvement in higher education.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false.
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
Correct Answer: 3
Q.44) The recommendation that no student should be allowed to specialise in teaching a subject unless he had it in BA/B.Sc was made by
[1] The Yashpal committee
[2] The Knowledge Commission
[3] The Education commission (1964-66)
[4] The N.R. Sarkar committee
Correct Answer: 3
Q.45) In its formative years, which university had taken to the strategy of adopting multi-media instructions through Gyan Vani and Gyan Darshan?
[1] Karnataka State Open university
[2] Indira Gandhi National Open university
[3] Dr. BR. Ambedkar open university
[4] Yashwant Rao Chavan open university
Correct Answer: 2
Q.46-50)
Read RC Passage to Answer:
For more than nine decades scientists have tried to replicate the process that produces energy for the sun and stars-fusion. On Tuesday, researchers at the National Ignition Facility (NIF) in California, USA, announced a milestone in this endeavour. They merged two nuclei to produce a heavier nucleus. Their reactor produced about 1.5 times more energy than what was used in the process. In all the earlier attempts to harness the power of fusion, the reactors used up more energy than what was produced. But scientists say that it will be at least two decades before the process pioneered in the California laboratory can be scaled up. Even then, in a world desperately searching for technologies that can power the developmental needs of nations adding to the GHG load, the break-through at NIF has generated excitement.
Several countries are shifting to renewable energies to meet their international climate-related commitments. Yet, power generation currently is responsible for 25-30 percent of global GHG emissions. The inherently unstable nature of renewables means that countries find it very difficult to jettison fossil-fuel energy sources. Conventionally-produced nuclear energy-that uses fission technology-is relatively cleaner. But accidents at Chernobyl in 1986 and Fukushima in 2011 have raised serious questions over the safety of fission-powedered plants.
Q.46) According to current estimates, power generation accounts for how much of the total GHG emissions on earth?
[1] 10-15 percent
[2] 25-30 percent
[3] 40-45 percent
[4] 50-55 percent
Correct Answer: 2
Q.47) Statement I: Energy produced in the sun and the stars is through fission.
Statement II: Energy produced through fission is relatively cleaner as compared to that from fossil fuels.
[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false.
[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
Correct Answer: 4
Q.48) Scientists have been trying to produce energy through fusion for-
[1] The last 20 years
[2] The last 40 years
[3] The last 50 years
[4] More than 90 years
Correct Answer: 4
Q.49) Assertion (A): Several countries of the world are moving towards renewable energy sources for their development needs.
Reason (R): The renewable resources of energy are of stable nature.
[1] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
[2] Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
[3] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
[4] (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: 3
Q.50) For every 100 units of energy consumed in the process of fusion, the National Ignition Facility in California was able to produce how many units of energy?
[1] 50
[2] 100
[3] 125
[4] 150
Correct Answer: 4
