Q.1-5)

Q.1) Total distribution of Mobile phones in M.P. is ___ % less than that of in Assam and Punjab together.

[1] 15.58

[2] 12.98

[3] 18.42

[4] 17.23

Correct Answer: 1

Q.2) What is the ratio of distribution of Mobile Phones in Low income people of Bihar to the Middle income people of Kerala?

[1] 25:18

[2] 19:12

[3] 18:25

[4] 1904 : 1175

Correct Answer: 4

Q.3) What is the difference between the number of Mobile phones distributed among High income people of UP. MP and Kerala together and Middle income people of Haryana, Punjab and Kerala together?

[1] 144800

[2] 136500

[3] 140900

[4] 144200

Correct Answer: 2

Q.4) In Haryana state, the ratio of distribution (%) of Mobile phones among High income people to the Low income people is 2:3, then the distribution of Mobile Phones among High income people in the same state is_____ more than that of among Middle income people.

[1] 26000

[2] 14000

[3] 21000

[4] 24000

Correct Answer: 1

Q.5) Total distribution of Mobile Phones in Low income people of all the states together excluding Haryana is approximately _____ % of the total distribution in all the states together?

[1] 63.7

[2] 45.6

[3] 54.9

[4] 50.7

Correct Answer: 4

Q.6) Match the column:

A. Podcasts

B. Blogs

C. Wiki

D. Webcasting

I. the personal websites that contains contents organised like a Journal or diary.

II. the dissemination of recorded or live content over the internet.

III. the digital audio or video files containing meaningful content for learning

IV. the open, dynamic websites with collaboratively constructed knowledge, information and resources which are freely available on internet

[1] A-II B-IV C-III D-I

[2] A-III B-I C-IV D-II

[3] A-IV B-II C-III D-I

[4] A-II B-I C-IV D-III

Correct Answer: 2

Q.7) Which of the following are the characteristics of an Ideal Evaluation in teaching-learning process?

A. Comprehensiveness

B. Validity

C. Reliability

D. Subjectivity

[1] BD

[2] ABC

[3] ACD

[4] BD

Correct Answer: 2

Q.8) Which of the following statements are true about ‘SWAYAM’?

A. Swayam is designed to achieve three cardinal principles.

B. Swayam is hosting all the courses, taught in classrooms from IX till Post graduation.

C. Swayam assesses students continuously and grants degrees.

D. It can be accessed by anyone, anytime at any place.

[1] AC

[2] ACD

[3] ABD

[4] BC

Correct Answer: 3

Q.9) Which of the following is related to Learning – Centred approach of Education?

[1] Imposed

[2] Authoritarian

[3] Self-controlled

[4] Autocratic

Correct Answer: 3

Q.10) Arrange the steps of project method in a sequence.

A. Purpose of the project

B. Providing a situation

C. Execution of the project

D. Planning of the project

E. Recording of the project

F. Evaluation of the project

[1] ADBCEF

[2] DBAEFC

[3] BADCFE

[4] CADEFB

Correct Answer: 3

Q.11) In much of social research, the variables used are-

[1] Manipulable

[2] Experimental

[3] Non-manipulable

[4] Deviational

Correct Answer: 3

Q.12) The panel study has the issue of

[1] Attrition

[2] Single survey

[3] Different variables

[4] Inanimate objects

Correct Answer: 1

Q.13) If respondents are offered an option of answering a questionnaire, for example the postal questionnaire respondents are given an option of answering by web survey, it is called-

[1] Optional survey

[2] Multiple survey

[3] Selective survey

[4] Mixed mode survey

Correct Answer: 4

Q.14) Which of the following are the disadvantages of online research?

A. Online research is expensive.

B. Samples can be small and skewed.

C. There can be an excessive turnover of communication.

D. Technological issues may lead to inconsistencies.

E. Online participants are rigid.

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.15) Statement I : The qualitative data analysis is governed by the codified prescriptions of quantitative data analysis.

Statement II : Qualitative data analysis has many approaches, of which the grounded theory is important.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.16) According to the ancient Indian texts, the ultimate goal of both internal and external communication is-

[1] Achieving social status

[2] Capturing political power

[3] Self-realisation

[4] Accumulation of wealth

Correct Answer: 3

Q.17) According to Chanakya, communication flows from-

[1] The masses

[2] The centre of power

[3] The elitists

[4] The Military

Correct Answer: 2

Q.18) Looking deep into the channels of communication is described as-

[1] Content analysis

[2] Audience analysis

[3] Control analysis

[4] Media analysis

Correct Answer: 4

Q.19) The humanistic approach to communication posits that-

A. Behaviour is innate

B. Behaviour is concocted

C. Behavioural changes originate from the inner self

D. The reward-punishment technique for behavioural change is short-lived.

E. Communicative techniques focus only on paralinguistic messages, for behavioural change

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ACD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.20) Statement I : In terms of communication, the dominant interests of a larger culture will form the image of minority audiences.

Statement II : The medium of television is often considered as a new religion.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.21) An amount deposited at 5% simple interest becomes Rs. 1512 in 4 years. How much the same amount will become in 2 1/2 years at 10% simple interest per annum?

[1] 1,475

[2] 1,575

[3] 1,675

[4] 1,875

Correct Answer: 2

Q.22) What number would replace question mark (?) in the series given below?

1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 9, 13, 20, 31,?

[1] 49

[2] 51

[3] 47

[4] 45

Correct Answer: 1

Q.23) The average weight of six members of a family is 30 kg. If the head of the family is not considered, the average weight of the rest of the family members is 5 kg less than the earlier average. Find the weight of the head of the family.

[1] 55 kg

[2] 53 kg

[3] 60 kg

[4] 57 kg

Correct Answer: 1

Q.24) In a certain code language ‘Black is coded as ‘1131122’, How ‘White’ will be coded in that language?

[1] 5200832

[2] 2389025

[3] 5209823

[4] 5208923

Correct Answer: 3

Q.25) If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are increased by 7, then fraction becomes 2/3. Find the original fraction.

[1] 4/5

[2] 3/5

[3] 3/8

[4] 5/3

Correct Answer: 3

Q.26) “You really must try out to be selected in the basketball team because my uncle who teaches philosophy says that you have a real potential”. Identify the logical fallacy committed in the above argument.

[1] Hasty Generalisation

[2] Appeal to Inappropriate authority

[3] Ad hominem

[4] Begging the question

Correct Answer: 2

Q.27) Which of the following statements are so related that if one of them is true the other must be false and vice-versa?

A. All human beings are mortal.

B. Some human beings are mortal.

C. Some human beings are not mortal.

D. No human beings are mortal.

[1] AC

[2] BC

[3] CD

[4] AD

Correct Answer: 1

Q.28) Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement – “No plants are murderers”?

[1] No plants are non-murderers.

[2] No murderers are plants.

[3] All non-murderers are non-plants.

[4] Some non-murderers are not non-plants.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.29) “I just cannot believe it! Mr. Suresh cannot be guilty of murder since there is no way Mr. Suresh could kill someone”. Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

[1] Slippery slope

[2] Begging the Question

[3] Ad hominem

[4] Equivocation

Correct Answer: 2

Q.30) According to classical Indian school of logic, knowledge resulting from prior knowledge of invariable concomitance between two objects is called?

[1] Arthapatti

[2] Anumana

[3] Upamana

[4] Anuplabdhi

Correct Answer: 2

Q.31) A computer is used to store photographs and videos. The average size of each photograph is 8 MB and the average size of each video is 400 MB. How much memory (in gigabytes) is needed to store 800 photographs and 80 videos? (1 KB = 1024 Bytes)

[1] 3.75

[2] 4.75

[3] 34.25

[4] 37.50

Correct Answer: 4

Q.32) In about 1945, who among the following developed the idea of a stored program computer?

[1] John Von Neumann

[2] Tim Berners Lee

[3] Blaise Pascal

[4] N.R. Narayanamurthy

Correct Answer: 1

Q.33) Which of the following communication systems provides a means of sharing and collaboration by allowing a group of people to enter, modify and contribute one or more pages of related text?

[1] Wiki

[2] Email

[3] Podcast

[4] RSS feed

Correct Answer: 1

Q.34) Statement I : EEPROM stands for Electronically Extendable Programmable Read Only Memory.

Statement II : RAM is much faster to write or to read from than other types of memory: but its main drawback is its non-volatility.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Which of the following statements about email address spoofing are TRUE?

A. E-mail address spoofing is copying an email to other staff.

B. E-mail address spoofing is used for hacking

C. E-mail address spoofing is the forgery of an email header or sender information

D. E-mail address spoofing is sending a joke email to other staff.

[1] AB

[2] BC

[3] CD

[4] AD

Correct Answer: 2

Q.36) Which of the following are waterborne bacterial diseases?

A. Cholera

B. Hepatitis

C. Typhoid

D. Schistosomiasis

E. Dysentery

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] ACE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 3

Q.37) Assertion A : Beneath the surface horizons, the subsoil, usually have a lower organic content and higher concentration of mineral particles.

Reason R : Subsoil is generally made up of weathered rock fragments.

[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

[2] Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

[3] A is correct but R is not correct.

[4] A is not correct but R is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.38) Which one of the following is a secondary aerosol?

[1] Sea salt

[2] Mineral particles

[3] Black carbon

[4] Sulphate particles

Correct Answer: 4

Q.39) Hazardous waste is liquid or solid that contains substances known to be

A. Fatal to humans or animals only at high doses

B. Toxic, carcinogenic or mutagenic to humans

C. Ignitable even at temperatures less than 60°C

D. Non-reactive

E. Corrosive

[1] ACD

[2] BCE

[3] BCD

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.40) An Eutrophic lake

A. is rich in nutrients

B. is poor in organic matters

C. has high algal blooms

D. is rich in dissolved oxygen

E. has no issue with survival of fish and other aquatic life

[1] ABC

[2] CDE

[3] AC

[4] BD

Correct Answer: 3

Q.41) In the context of higher education, National Education Policy 2020 has emphasized the need for

[1] Discipline specific regulators

[2] Free education

[3] Fragmentation

[4] Internationalisation

Correct Answer: 4

Q.42) Which of the following are major characteristics of Good Governance?

A. It is consensus-oriented.

B. It’s accountable.

C. It is Opaque.

D. It is inclusive.

E. It is autocratic.

[1] ABD

[2] AD

[3] BE

[4] BCE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.43) Some important recommendations of the Kothari Commission were :

A. Establishment of clusters of advanced centres in major universities

B. Abolition of the system of affiliate colleges

C. Abolition of continuous evaluation system

D. Establishment of six major universities

E. Improving quality and content of lecturing

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 4

Q.44) During the Vedic period, the higher level of education had-

[1] Professional curriculum

[2] General curriculum

[3] Specialised curriculum

[4] Technical curriculum

Correct Answer: 3

Q.45) Which among the following is/are not a criteria for quality assessment followed by NAAC :

A. Teaching -learning and Evaluation

B. Consultancy and Extension

C. Infrastructure and Learning Resources

D. Recruitment of Teaching Professionals

E. Governance and Leadership

[1] D

[2] ABD

[3] BCE

[4] B

Correct Answer: 1

Q.46-50)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

At home the post-pandemic normalisation has spurred a renewed demand for imported inputs. But abroad, it has had the opposite effect, leading to a decline in demand. Foreign house holds are no longer demanding so many goods now that the lockdowns that kept them in their houses and the fiscal stimuli that gave them the money to spend have both ended. So, India’s imports have soared just at a time when its merchandise exports have started to fall.

Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries slip into what now seem like inevitable recessions.. In that case, India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) could widen even further, possibly to four percent of GDP in 2022-23 – double the level that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) traditionally regards as “safe”. How should India respond?

One possibility would be to attract foreign capital inflows worth at least four percent of GDP. But is this realistic? The world is currently facing unprecedented levels of uncertainty. After two years of the pandemic, we are witnessing a land war in Europe, the highest inflation in the developed world in the last four decades, the fastest pace of interest rate hikes in the history of the US Federal Reserve, an energy crisis in Europe, and slowdown in China that continues to struggle with Covid-19.

In such an uncertain environment, foreign investors prefer to invest in safe assets such as US government bonds rather than emerging markets like India.

Q.46) Statement I : In the post-pandemic period, demand for goods has picked up both in India and abroad.

Statement II : Covid-19 pandemic s still not over in China.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.47) What level of current account deficit is considered ‘safe’ by RBI in terms of percentage of GDP?

[1] 2%

[2] 3%

[3] 4%

[4] 5%

Correct Answer: 1

Q.48) The world is facing unprecedented uncertainly because of-

A. war in Europe

B. high levels of inflation in developed countries

C. energy crisis in Europe

D. fast pace of interest hikes in US

E. normalisation after the end of pandemic

[1] ABCD

[2] BCDE

[3] ACDE

[4] ABCDE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.49) Statement I : In an uncertain environment, foreign invertors like to invest in emerging markets like India.

Statement II : According to the author, the current account deficit is likely to increase even further in 2022-23.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.50) Current account deficit in India is increasing because of-

A. Rise in India’s imports

B. Rise in India’s exports

C. Increase in foreign capital inflows

D. Fall in India’s exports

[1] AB

[2] BC

[3] AD

[4] CD

Correct Answer: 3