Q.1-5)

Q.1) What is the ratio of the number of males to the number of females working in the night shift from the Call Centre industry?

[1] 9:11

[2] 11:9

[3] 11:7

[4] 7:11

Correct Answer: 2

Q.2) What is the approximate average number of females working in the night shift from all the industries together?

[1] 4454

[2] 8962

[3] 6652

[4] 5646

Correct Answer: 1

Q.3) What is the total number of males working in the night shift from all the industries together?

[1] 56594

[2] 51576

[3] 57356

[4] 53774

Correct Answer: 4

Q.4) The number of females working in the night shift form the sports industry is ______% of the total number of people working in the night shift from all the industries together?

[1] 56

[2] 36

[3] 32

[4] 44

Correct Answer: 2

Q.5) What is the difference between the total number of males and the total number of females working in the night shift from all the industries together?

[1] 26508

[2] 27084

[3] 27048

[4] 26726

Correct Answer: 3

Q.6) In which of the following ways Padlet (online tool) can be used?

A. For creating virtual wall

B. For uploading the files

C. For collaborative work

D. For posting the pictures and texts

[1] AD

[2] BC

[3] CD

[4] ABCD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.7) Statement I : GSAT-30 satellite is used by Swayamprabha for the programme telecasts on the DTH channels.

Statement II : The Programs of Swayamprabha are available on 24×7 basis.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.8) Which period of learning shows no improvement in learning curve?

[1] Irregular progress

[2] Spurts

[3] Plateau

[4] Initial Stage

Correct Answer: 3

Q.9) According to Herbart, arrange the elements of Pedagogy of teaching and learning in a sequence?

A. Preparation

B. Association

C. Presentation

D. Application

E. Generalisation

[1] B,A,C,D,E

[2] C,A,E,B,D

[3] A,C,B,E,D

[4] B,A,C,E,D

Correct Answer: 3

Q.10) Statement I : Entry behaviour implies the activities and responses of the learners after the completion of the teaching -learning process.

Statement II : Terminal behaviour implies the activities of the learners prior to the teaching-learning process.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement Il are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.11) When in a process of reasoning observation is followed by theory, hypotheses and interpretation, that approach to research is known as

[1] Formulative

[2] Standardised

[3] Inductive

[4] Deductive

Correct Answer: 3

Q.12) If research is done to find out behaviours and attitudes by analysing existing records and other materials, it is known as

[1] Past research

[2] Non-observational research

[3] Non-participant research

[4] Archival research

Correct Answer: 4

Q.13) If the dress of a person does not reflect or predict his voting behaviour, the assumption is of

[1] Positive correlation

[2] Zero correlation

[3] Partial correlation

[4] Fragmented correlation

Correct Answer: 2

Q.14) Which of the following are advantages of web-based research?

A. It saves time.

B. The participant can engage in the task at his /her convenience.

C. The data collection is automatic and accurate.

D. It demands a small sample.

E. The participants are heavily paid.

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.15) Statement I : Survey research has the advantage of sampling a large number of respondents who are selected for research.

Statement II : Researchers, to administer their own surveys, do not have many options except to do it themselves.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 3

Q.16) People perceive the communicated messages according to their:

[1] Official status

[2] Cultural values

[3] Imagined influences

[4] Semantic gaps

Correct Answer: 2

Q.17) The doctrine of individualism, a political concept in communication, is identified as a/an-

[1] Formula

[2] Economic indicator

[3] Institutional background

[4] Ideology

Correct Answer: 4

Q.18) The behaviouristic model of communication asserts that:

A. Behaviours are learnt in social situations

B. Behaviours are learnt in external situations only

C. The mental state of individual is important

D. The mental state of individual is unimportant

E. Communication techniques for cultural change include both verbal and non-verbal messages.

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] ACE

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 3

Q.19) The elements as related to communication in the ancient paradigm of everyday life are:

A. Physiological

B. Economic

C. Ethical

D. Self-realisation

E. Ego clashes

[1] ABCD

[2] BCDE

[3] ACDE

[4] ABDE

Correct Answer: 1

Q.20) Statement I: By supplying facts and opinions, mass media enable the audience to make decisions.

Statement II: Mass media should supress facts and opinions in order to influence the government decisions.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 3

Q.21) A, B, C and D are all distinct individuals. The details of their relationships are given as :

i. A is the daughter of B

ii. B is the son of C

iii. C is the Father of D

Which of the following statements is true?

[1] C is the Uncle of A

[2] D and B are cousins

[3] A is the daughter of D

[4] If P is the daughter of B, then A and P are sisters.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.22) In a group of 2100 persons comprising of players and their coaches, there is a coach for every fourteen players. How many coaches are there in the group?

[1] 145

[2] 120

[3] 140

[4] 150

Correct Answer: 3

Q.23) What number would replace question mark (?) in the series given below?

1, 5, 11, 19, 29, 41, 55,?

[1] 71

[2] 96

[3] 69

[4] 67

Correct Answer: 1

Q.24) Karan was born 3 years after his parent’s marriage. His father is 6 years older than his mother but 26 years older than Karan who is 12 years of age as on today. At what age did his mother get married?

[1] 20 years

[2] 19 years

[3] 17 years

[4] 18 years

Correct Answer: 3

Q.25) A student was asked to divide half of a number by 5 and the other half by 3 and then add the two quantities. Instead of doing all this the student divides the given number by 4 which results into 5 short of the correct value. What is the initial number?

[1] 300

[2] 400

[3] 350

[4] 450

Correct Answer: 1

Q.26) Which logical fallacy is committed in the following argument – “Atheists have not proven that God does not exist. Therefore we can conclude that God exists.”

[1] Ad hominem

[2] Appeal to Ignorance

[3] Hasty Generalisation

[4] Slippery Slope

Correct Answer: 2

Q.27) “Since all professors are competent, and no competent people are underpaid. Therefore no professors are underpaid.” Which formal fallacy is committed in the above argument?

[1] Undistributed middle

[2] Affirming the consequent

[3] Denying the antecedent

[4] Existential fallacy

Correct Answer: 1

Q.28) Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?

A. No philosophers are underpaid scholars.

B. All Philosophers are non-underpaid scholars.

C. No underpaid scholars are philosophers.

D. All non-underpaid scholars are non-philosophers.

[1] ABC

[2] CD

[3] BD

[4] ABD

Correct Answer: 1

Q.29) Which of the following statements can neither be both true, nor can they both be together false?

A. All bread is nutritious.

B. Some bread is nutritious.

C. Some bread is not nutritious.

D. No bread is nutritious.

[1] AB

[2] AC

[3] AD

[4] CD

Correct Answer: 2

Q.30) According to classical Indian school of Logic (Nyaya) which of the following statements commits the fallacy of viruddha?

[1] Sound is eternal, because it is produced.

[2] Wherever there is fire, there is smoke.

[3] The hill has fire because it is knowable.

[4] Sound is eternal because it is audible.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.31) Given below two statements:

Statement I : ASCII, a character – encoding scheme, is an acronym for American Standard Code for Intelligent Information

Statement II : =

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.32) Statement I : An Operating System controls peripherals and provides protection against viruses.

Statement II : In word processing and desktop publishing, the terms portrait and landscape refer to Page Layout.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.33) In computers, which of the following file formats contains exclusively the text file formats?

A. PDF

B. CSV

C. GIF

D. RTE

E. TXT

[1] ABE

[2] BDE

[3] BCD

[4] AC

Correct Answer: 2

Q.34) In the context of MS-PowerPoint, a presentation software, which of the following statements are true?

A. Objects on the slide that hold text, pictures and more are called Placeholders.

B. MS-PowerPoint automatically opens with Windows Operating System

C. A view that displays the slides of a presentation as miniature representations of the slides is called Slide Sorter view.

[1] AB

[2] AC

[3] BC

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 2

Q.35) Statement I : Fibre-optic cable makes use of light pulses to transmit data and is most appropriate to connect computers in a small building.

Statement II : URL is the text used by web browsers to locate a web address on the Internet.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are True.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are False.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 4

Q.36) What is the correct sequence of Biomagnification due to contaminated water body?

A. Humans

B. Zooplanktons

C. Bacteria

D. Fish

[1] A,C,D,B

[2] C,B,D,A

[3] A,D,B,C

[4] B,C,D,A

Correct Answer: 2

Q.37) Aeration technique of water treatment is used for the removal of:

[1] Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

[2] Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)

[3] Hardness

[4] Metals

Correct Answer: 2

Q.38) Statement I : Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to report to the public an overall assessment of a given day’s air quality.

Statement II : Air Quality Index integrates air quality data for any two of the criteria pollutants into a single number that represents the air quality of urban area.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correc

Correct Answer: 3

Q.39) Which of the following are examples of solar cells?

A. Organic solar cell

B. Nanoparticle solar cell

C. Elemental solar cell

D. Plastic solar cell

E. Molecular solar cell

[1] ABC

[2] ABD

[3] BCD

[4] CDE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.40) When little rivulets of running water gather together and cut small channels in the soil, the process is called as?

[1] gully erosion

[2] Sheet erosion

[3] Channel erosion

[4] Rill erosion

Correct Answer: 4

Q.41) As per NEP 2020 Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is sought to be achieved to the extent of 50% by

[1] 2030

[2] 2035

[3] 2040

[4] 2047

Correct Answer: 2

Q.42) The Universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were to be set up on the model of:

[1] Oxford University

[2] Cambridge University

[3] University of London

[4] University of Edinburgh

Correct Answer: 3

Q.43) Statement I : NITI Aayog is neither a constitution body not a statutory body.

Statement II : NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank of Government of India.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are True.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are False.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.44) Statement I: UGC-CARE List I includes journals found qualified through CARE protocols.

Statement II: UGC-CARE List II includes journals indexed in globally recognized databases.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.45) Which of the following are the logical steps for an instruction design system under MOOCs?

A. Policy analysis

B. Need analysis

C. Content analysis

D. Learner analysis

E. Assignment analysis

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] CDE

[4] ADE

Correct Answer: 2

Q.46-50)

Read RC Passage to Answer:

The global financial crisis that began in 2008 hit Europe almost immediately with a major debt crisis. Borrowers in a number of Eurozone countries had built up large debts and appeared to be unable to service them.

The four principal Eurozone debtors were Greece, Ireland, Portugal, and Spain. In Spain and Ireland, house holds had borrowed heavily to finance a major housing and construction boom. When housing prices collapsed, the two national governments started borrowing heavily form abroad to finance national bank bailouts and to stimulate their economies. Greece, however, had been running budget deficits ever since the creation of the Eurozone, with the government relying heavily on foreign borrowing to cover the shortfalls. Portugal was somewhere in between; both households and the government had been borrowing heavily.

The difficulties of the Eurozone debtors were not just a problem for them. since major northern European financial institutions and investors were the one that had made most of these loans. If the debtors defaulted, trillions of dollars in loans on the books of northern European banks, investors and pension funds would go bad. The weight of so many bad loans and investments endangered the very integrity of the financial systems of even the richest European countries, especially Germany and France. The sovereign debt crisis threatened both the sovereign debtors and their creditors- and , in fact, the entire European economy.

Q.46) Which countries among the following had very high household borrowings?

A. Portugal

B. Ireland

C. Greece

D. Spain

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] ACD

[4] ABD

Correct Answer: 4

Q.47) Statement I : The debt crisis did not affect the richest European countries.

Statement II : The debt crisis threatened only the debtors.

[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

[3] Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

[4] Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: 2

Q.48) Which countries among the following were the main Eurozone debtors in 2008?

A. Germany

B. Spain

C. France

D. Greece

E. Portugal

[1] ABC

[2] BCD

[3] BDE

[4] ABCDE

Correct Answer: 3

Q.49) Assertion A : In 2008 , Europe was quite susceptible to the global financial crisis.

Reason R : The global financial crisis immediately led to a major debt crisis in Europe.

[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

[2] Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

[3] A is correct but R is not correct.

[4] A is not correct but R is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

Q.50) Failure on part of the debtors to pay loans would have risked:

A. pension funds

B. investors

C. northern European banks

[1] AB

[2] BC

[3] AC

[4] ABC

Correct Answer: 4